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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Continuation of the explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And the hamzah of a word with elongation is reached in the nisbah *** to what was in its dual form to which it was related."

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : And what do you say regarding the nisbah to qurra'? Qurrayiyy and qurrawiyy.
The student: No, qurrayiyy.

The Shaykh : Because the hamzah is original, so it remains as it is; we say qurrayiyy. And what do we say for wadha'?
The student: Wadhaiyy.

The Shaykh : Wadhaiyy, from the beginning? Huh?
The student: Ibtida'iyy.

The Shaykh : Ibtida'iyy or ibtidaawiyy?
The student: Ibtida'iyy.

The Shaykh : Why ibtida'iyy?
The student: Because it is original.

The Shaykh : Is the hamzah original or not?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : Intiha'?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Intiha'?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Intihaiyy and intihawiyy.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: What is the type of the hamzah?

The Shaykh : It is converted from the original.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : It is finished, it is finished. Is the alif at the end of the verb an alif or not? The word "intaha" (finished) is originally "intahiya" (with a ya), its original form is "intahiya," so now it has become "intaha" with the hamzah converted from its original form, so we say intihaiyy and intihawiyy. Is that clear? Unlike ibtida'iyy, which is the nisbah to "ibtida'" (beginning) because its hamzah is original; "ibtada'" (to begin), "yabtidu'" (he begins), the hamzah is original. Is that clear? Good, then the author said.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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