A man who was traveling sent a message to his wife instructing her not to do something, then some of his family sent him a message informing him that she had done what he had forbidden her from doing, so he became angry

The questioner : Regarding the last situation, he says: In these days when I am working in Iraq, I sent a message to my wife instructing her not to do something else, in addition to the first and second instances. After that, one of my family members sent me a message saying that she had done what I had forbidden her from doing, so I became extremely angry, to the point that I did not go to work the next day. I sent a recorded tape to my father saying, "Tell my wife that she must leave the house because I have divorced her." I do not know how many times I said that phrase. However, my father did not inform my wife about it. He sent me a message denying what my brother had said and swearing that she had not done anything.
I sent a message to my wife and told her that she must leave the house, and that, if Allah wills, when I return I will give her all her belongings, such as her appliances and the like. However, my mother took the message from the postal worker without my wife knowing that she had a message, and she did not show it to her. That is to say, my wife did not read the message and did not know what was in it. She also did not know about the recorded tape containing the divorce. What is the ruling on this, and is it permissible for me to continue my marital life with her?

The Shaykh : Your first divorce, which you sent to your father via the tape, was based on the fact that she had done what you had forbidden her from doing. If it is established that she did not do it, then the divorce does not take effect, because a divorce based on a cause does not occur if the cause is found not to exist. As for your last divorce, if your intention in saying "she must leave the house" was divorce, then the divorce takes effect on her, based on the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): If this divorce is the third one, then she is not lawful to you until after she marries another husband in a valid marriage, and then the separation occurs.