Were the previous generations before the Prophet's mission from the people of the period of ignorance, or was the proof conveyed to them?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : This is a new issue you are raising now. Your first issue was that these people were from the period of ignorance. No, they were not from the period of ignorance. These people came in the time of Isma'il and Ibrahim, and their call was conveyed to them. It is still standing today, and praise be to Allah, and it is the Sacred Ka'bah.
The questioner : Now, what do you say about the verse:.
The Shaykh : May Allah reward you, but have we finished with the first problem?
The questioner : Yes, yes, now it is clear.
The Shaykh : Now you have an issue regarding this verse. Now, if you know the answer to the following question, you will understand my answer to your first question. Did a warner come to us?
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : Did a warner come to us Muslims in the end times?
The questioner : A warner came to us, yes.
The Shaykh : I am not asking you who came to us.
The questioner : A warner came to us, yes.
The Shaykh : A warner came to us. Now, why do you doubt that it did not come to the Arabs? How did you understand the verse then? The apparent meaning of the verse, if it applies to the Arabs, it applies to us. And if it does not apply to us, it does not apply to the Arabs to whom the Messenger was sent.
The questioner : It is not clear, O Shaykh.
The Shaykh : It is not clear. In other words.
The questioner : Before the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him).
The Shaykh : Did a warner come to the generation before the Messenger?
The questioner : Ibrahim came to them before the Messenger. Ibrahim came to them before the Messenger.
The Shaykh : So what is the meaning of the verse? That no warner came to them directly, so it became like our case. Is this clear too? What is the meaning of "the call was not conveyed to them"? That is one thing, and saying "no warner came to them directly" is another thing. So there is no issue with the verse.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh : And to you.
The questioner : Now, what do you say about the verse:
To warn a people to whom no warner had come before
لتنذر قوماً ما أتاهم من نذيرThe Shaykh : May Allah reward you, but have we finished with the first problem?
The questioner : Yes, yes, now it is clear.
The Shaykh : Now you have an issue regarding this verse. Now, if you know the answer to the following question, you will understand my answer to your first question. Did a warner come to us?
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : Did a warner come to us Muslims in the end times?
The questioner : A warner came to us, yes.
The Shaykh : I am not asking you who came to us.
The questioner : A warner came to us, yes.
The Shaykh : A warner came to us. Now, why do you doubt that it did not come to the Arabs? How did you understand the verse then? The apparent meaning of the verse, if it applies to the Arabs, it applies to us. And if it does not apply to us, it does not apply to the Arabs to whom the Messenger was sent.
The questioner : It is not clear, O Shaykh.
The Shaykh : It is not clear. In other words.
The questioner : Before the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him).
The Shaykh : Did a warner come to the generation before the Messenger?
The questioner : Ibrahim came to them before the Messenger. Ibrahim came to them before the Messenger.
The Shaykh : So what is the meaning of the verse? That no warner came to them directly, so it became like our case. Is this clear too? What is the meaning of "the call was not conveyed to them"? That is one thing, and saying "no warner came to them directly" is another thing. So there is no issue with the verse.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh : And to you.