A man swore an oath and then broke it, and he fasted despite his ability to feed people; what is the ruling?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : He says: May the Shaykh be respected, a man swore an oath and then broke it, and he fasted despite his ability to feed people. What is the ruling? Does fasting suffice for him, even though Allah began with feeding and made fasting for when one is unable? And if he was unaware of the ruling, does the ruling change?
The Shaykh : If a person fasts as expiation for an oath while he is able to feed ten poor people, or clothe them, or free a slave, then the fasting becomes voluntary, and he must perform the expiation. However, the fasting is not wasted; it becomes a voluntary act for him, and he should feed them. It has become widespread among many people that the expiation for an oath is fasting. Therefore, if he swears at his brother and says, "By Allah, if you do such and such," he says, "Do not leave me without fasting for three days." This is a mistake. Feeding is prior, or clothing, or freeing a slave. If he does not find [the means], then fasting for three consecutive days. Yes.
The Shaykh : If a person fasts as expiation for an oath while he is able to feed ten poor people, or clothe them, or free a slave, then the fasting becomes voluntary, and he must perform the expiation. However, the fasting is not wasted; it becomes a voluntary act for him, and he should feed them. It has become widespread among many people that the expiation for an oath is fasting. Therefore, if he swears at his brother and says, "By Allah, if you do such and such," he says, "Do not leave me without fasting for three days." This is a mistake. Feeding is prior, or clothing, or freeing a slave. If he does not find [the means], then fasting for three consecutive days. Yes.