What is the ruling if a woman is menstruating and she is compelled to teach her children or students the subject of religion while she is in a state of menstruation, and what is her sin?
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The Shaykh : The second question: If a woman is menstruating and she is compelled to teach her children or students the subject of religion, what is her position when she touches the Qur'an while she is in a state of menstruation, and what is her sin?
Answer: She has no sin. However, regarding this question and the phrase "what is her sin," although our answer to this question is that it is permissible for this teacher who teaches her children or students the subject of religion, and who may recite the Qur'an to them and touch the Qur'an, and there is no harm in that for her; nevertheless, if we say there is no harm in that, many scholars say that it is forbidden for her, as a menstruating woman, to touch the Qur'an or to recite the Qur'an. If the Shari'ah had established this ruling that some scholars issue as a fatwa, it would not be permissible for a woman to say, "What is her sin?" because the ruling is as Allah has decreed, and it is not permissible for us to object to the ruling of Allah (Mighty and Majestic). I say this as a precaution and out of caution. Why? Because I fear that the question will be answered with a consensus, which is: if the woman is in this state of monthly menstruation, why does she not pray? What is her sin? This question is not raised because Allah (Mighty and Majestic) has made it obligatory for her not to pray and not to fast in this state of menstruation. He distinguished between prayer and fasting by ordering her to make up the fast but not ordering her to make up the prayer. So a woman might say, or a questioner might ask, "What is her sin?" This is a question that has no place in grammar, as the grammarians say. The question is incorrect. It would have been sufficient for the question to be complete without the last phrase, "what is her sin." The question is: Does she touch the Qur'an while she is menstruating? The answer is yes. As for "what is her sin,"
The questioner: I mean, what is her sin? What is the ruling on the sin if it is established? What is this sin? I mean, what is its ruling? Do I expiate for it? If... that this is forbidden.
The Shaykh : We said
The questioner: ...
The Shaykh : We answered. We said the validity of the question is by deleting this last phrase, which is
The questioner: ... For example, if the Shaykh said this is forbidden, what is its expiation now?
The Shaykh : I answered you. May Allah guide me and you. I am correcting the question. The last line of the question: "Does she touch the Qur'an while she is menstruating, and what is her sin?" We struck out the phrase "and what is her sin." The question is: Does she touch the Qur'an while she is menstruating? The answer is yes. So, is the question "what is her sin" still valid? This question is not valid.
Answer: She has no sin. However, regarding this question and the phrase "what is her sin," although our answer to this question is that it is permissible for this teacher who teaches her children or students the subject of religion, and who may recite the Qur'an to them and touch the Qur'an, and there is no harm in that for her; nevertheless, if we say there is no harm in that, many scholars say that it is forbidden for her, as a menstruating woman, to touch the Qur'an or to recite the Qur'an. If the Shari'ah had established this ruling that some scholars issue as a fatwa, it would not be permissible for a woman to say, "What is her sin?" because the ruling is as Allah has decreed, and it is not permissible for us to object to the ruling of Allah (Mighty and Majestic). I say this as a precaution and out of caution. Why? Because I fear that the question will be answered with a consensus, which is: if the woman is in this state of monthly menstruation, why does she not pray? What is her sin? This question is not raised because Allah (Mighty and Majestic) has made it obligatory for her not to pray and not to fast in this state of menstruation. He distinguished between prayer and fasting by ordering her to make up the fast but not ordering her to make up the prayer. So a woman might say, or a questioner might ask, "What is her sin?" This is a question that has no place in grammar, as the grammarians say. The question is incorrect. It would have been sufficient for the question to be complete without the last phrase, "what is her sin." The question is: Does she touch the Qur'an while she is menstruating? The answer is yes. As for "what is her sin,"
The questioner: I mean, what is her sin? What is the ruling on the sin if it is established? What is this sin? I mean, what is its ruling? Do I expiate for it? If... that this is forbidden.
The Shaykh : We said
The questioner: ...
The Shaykh : We answered. We said the validity of the question is by deleting this last phrase, which is
The questioner: ... For example, if the Shaykh said this is forbidden, what is its expiation now?
The Shaykh : I answered you. May Allah guide me and you. I am correcting the question. The last line of the question: "Does she touch the Qur'an while she is menstruating, and what is her sin?" We struck out the phrase "and what is her sin." The question is: Does she touch the Qur'an while she is menstruating? The answer is yes. So, is the question "what is her sin" still valid? This question is not valid.