There is an incident of divorce, namely that 'Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) asked his son to divorce the wife he loved; did he not do so at first?

The Shaykh : The questioner says—and perhaps we will conclude the gathering by answering this question—he said: There is an incident of divorce that occurred at the request of 'Umar for his son Abdullah to divorce the wife he loved. Abdullah did not do so at first, but then he did so in response to the command of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him). What is the ruling on divorce of this type, i.e., at the request of the father?
A request.

The questioner : A request from the father.

The Shaykh : A request from a father. The concept means the father asking the son to divorce his wife. What are the limits of divorce? In what matters regarding the husband are the parents to be obeyed? What are the rights of the wife regarding the legal home, especially living with the husband's family? Is the wife deprived of some of her rights in deference to the desire of the parents or one of them?
This is a question for the beginning of a lecture, because it contains several questions.
... The hadith that was reported that 'Umar ibn al-Khattab (may Allah be pleased with him) ordered his son Abdullah to divorce his wife is authentic. And Ibn 'Umar found it difficult at first, so he went to the Messenger (peace be upon him) and related the story to him. He said to him (peace and blessings be upon him): . So I say, and I have been asked repeatedly about such an incident that occurs and is repeated today many times. The questioner asks me, and I cannot tell him as the Messenger told Ibn 'Umar: ; because his father is not like 'Umar, nor is he a peer of 'Umar. And I cannot say: Do not obey your father; because obeying the parents is obligatory. So I say: If your father who is ordering you to divorce your wife is like 'Umar to you, then obey him. And this is how I always answer, forever. And this, as we said earlier, is a comment on the impossible, and rather it is a style, meaning the sense of this speech is: Do not obey your father in such a matter; especially since most fathers today have no religion, and if they have religion they have no knowledge, and if they have knowledge they have no reason; darkness upon darkness. So one of them only strives to ease himself, and what problems do they create for us? They do not listen to advice. From whom is this? So if this son finds... and harm in divorcing his wife, and he may have a child or more from her; because of his obedience to his father, there is no obedience for him to him; because it exposes him to harm, and there is no harm and no reciprocating harm. And if, by Allah, he does not find any difficulty in it, and perhaps he himself is inclined to perhaps take another in her place; as long as there is no difficulty, he obeys him and gets rid of the problem. But such a question is usually not directed unless the son is clinging to his wife and is not satisfied with a substitute for her. And therefore we tell him: If your father is like 'Umar to you, then obey him, otherwise do not.
As for our question: What is the ruling on divorce of this type? If the questioner says: What is the ruling on pronouncing this type of divorce? Then we have known the answer. But if he means what is the ruling on the divorce of this type? Meaning if it occurred; i.e., the father ordered his son to divorce, so he executed it and divorced. And we at that time study the matter. If he was coerced to do so, there is no divorce, even though he executed the divorce; due to the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him): . And "coercion" was interpreted by the scholars with two opinions; the first is coercion, and the second is severe anger that prevents its owner from thinking properly. If this son was coerced by his father to divorce, his divorce is not effective by the text of this authentic hadith. But if he was...