Ruling on deducting the sons' marriage share from the estate
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If the father was accustomed to marrying all of his sons and paying their mahr, and he married all of them except one or two, and then he died leaving an estate, is the marriage share for these two deducted?
No.
Because the marriage of the two remaining has not yet taken place.
The questioner: It has become due.
The Shaykh: Did it become due during his lifetime?The questioner: It became due during his lifetime.
The Shaykh: Why did he not marry them?The questioner: They were the ones waiting, meaning.
Answer: So the negligence is on their part. Therefore, if their father dies, nothing is deducted from his estate for them.
The questioner: If the brothers agree?The Shaykh: If they agree, there is no harm, and this is good if they agree.
No.
Because the marriage of the two remaining has not yet taken place.
The questioner: It has become due.
The Shaykh: Did it become due during his lifetime?The questioner: It became due during his lifetime.
The Shaykh: Why did he not marry them?The questioner: They were the ones waiting, meaning.
Answer: So the negligence is on their part. Therefore, if their father dies, nothing is deducted from his estate for them.
The questioner: If the brothers agree?The Shaykh: If they agree, there is no harm, and this is good if they agree.