Ruling on the discharge of pre-seminal fluid during fasting
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
You cited the hadith (he leaves his desire and his food) as evidence for the invalidation of the fast of one who discharges semen through desire. Why does pre-seminal fluid not carry the same ruling?
Because pre-seminal fluid is not a desire that is deposited in the womb. For this reason, it comes out without one being aware of it. And were it not for its effect of moisture, it would not be known. It occurs without desire at the time of its discharge.
Yes, pre-seminal fluid may result from desire, such as when a man kisses his wife and discharges pre-seminal fluid. However, the fluid itself does not contain desire. One does not find pleasure in its discharge; the pleasure is separate from it. For this reason, it comes out without a gush and without sensation, and a person does not feel anything except its moisture.
Because pre-seminal fluid is not a desire that is deposited in the womb. For this reason, it comes out without one being aware of it. And were it not for its effect of moisture, it would not be known. It occurs without desire at the time of its discharge.
Yes, pre-seminal fluid may result from desire, such as when a man kisses his wife and discharges pre-seminal fluid. However, the fluid itself does not contain desire. One does not find pleasure in its discharge; the pleasure is separate from it. For this reason, it comes out without a gush and without sensation, and a person does not feel anything except its moisture.