The conditions for wiping over leather socks.
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : But there are necessary conditions; I must mention them to you and require you to answer them after I have completed them, if Allah wills:
The first condition: that he wears them in a state of ritual purity. If he wears them in a state other than ritual purity, even if he forgets, the wiping over them is not valid. If he was not in a state of ablution and forgot, and wore the leather socks, then the time for prayer came and he wiped and prayed, his prayer is not valid because he prayed without ablution. It is necessary that he wears them in a state of ritual purity. The evidence is the hadith of al-Mughirah ibn Shu'bah (may Allah be pleased with him), "I put them in," meaning I put my feet in while they were pure. And the feet do not become pure except by the purity of the entire body, meaning he put them in while in a state of ritual purity. This is the meaning, so he wiped over them. So if a man wears them in a state other than ritual purity while forgetting, then the time for prayer comes and he wipes over them and prays, then he remembers that he wore them in a state other than ritual purity, by what do we judge his ablution and his prayer? We judge that his ablution is not valid and the prayer is not valid, and it is obligatory for him to perform ablution anew, wash his feet, and repeat the prayer, because he wore them in what? A state other than ritual purity.
The second condition: that this be in the case of minor ritual impurity, meaning in the case of ablution, not in the case of the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity or from menstruation or the like. So if a man is in a state of major ritual impurity, he must remove the leather socks or the socks and wash his feet. Why? The evidence is from the Qur'an and the Sunnah. The evidence that the leather socks are not wiped over in the case of major ritual impurity is from the Qur'an and the Sunnah. From the Qur'an, Allah the Exalted said:[Al-Ma'idah 5:6] So He commanded the purification of the entire body. And in the Sunnah, the hadith of Safwan ibn 'Asal (may Allah be pleased with him) who said: Bulugh al-Maram 61.
And the rule is: "There is no wiping in the major purification, meaning the purification from major ritual impurity, except in dire necessity". Take this rule: "There is no wiping in the major purification except for dire necessity". For this reason, the head is not wiped over in it, whereas in ablution the head is wiped. The leather socks and socks are not wiped over in it, whereas in ablution the leather socks and socks are wiped over.
So let us give an example: If a man is afflicted with major ritual impurity, and he has socks that he wore in a state of ritual purity, then he performs the full ritual bath and wipes over the socks and prays, what do you say about his prayer? It is not valid because he wiped over the socks in the case of major ritual impurity, and there is no wiping over the socks in major ritual impurity. So if major ritual impurity befalls a man and he has socks or leather socks, it is obligatory for him to remove them and then wash the rest of his body, and this is necessary, because the rule we brought now is:
- Stand up -
The student: That there is no wiping ... over the socks
The Shaykh : In the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity
The student: Except for dire necessity
The Shaykh : Except for dire necessity. Well done. "There is no wiping in the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity except for dire necessity", such as a cast. Otherwise, there is no wiping over the leather socks in it, no wiping over the head, and no wiping over the turban. There is no wiping in the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity except for dire necessity.
How many conditions did we mention? Two.
The third condition: that this be within the specified time, meaning that the wiping be within the specified time, which is one day and one night for the resident and three days and their nights for the traveler. Pay attention: one day and one night for the resident and three days and their nights for the traveler. Look, the Shari'ah, when the traveler was in need of the leather socks, the Lawgiver gave him how much? Three days. And the resident, who has less need, was given one day and one night. So if he wipes after the completion of the period, the wiping is not valid and the ablution is not valid. So if a man's wiping period ends at exactly twelve o'clock in the daytime, and then he wipes over them at one o'clock in the daytime, what is the ruling on his ablution? Is it valid or not valid? It is not valid, because the wiping was after the end of the period. And the wiping must be within the period, because Allah the Exalted says:[Al-Baqarah 2:229] But when does the period begin? From the wearing? Or from the occurrence of ritual impurity after the wearing? Or from the wiping after that? There are three opinions on this: some say: from the wearing.
And some say: from the occurrence of ritual impurity after the wearing.
And some say: from the wiping after the occurrence of ritual impurity. And if someone says: from the wiping, even if no ritual impurity occurred, like one who performs ablution for renewal, if someone says this, his saying is correct, except if it contradicts scholarly consensus. If it contradicts scholarly consensus, scholarly consensus takes precedence. The effect of this scholarly disagreement appears by example: A man wore the socks when he performed ablution for the Fajr prayer at five o'clock, then he became ritually impure at ten o'clock, then he performed ablution for the Zuhr prayer at twelve o'clock. When was the wearing? Five o'clock. When was the ritual impurity? Ten o'clock. When was the wiping? Twelve o'clock. So when does the period begin? According to the correct opinion: it begins from the wiping, meaning from twelve o'clock, and what is before the wiping is not counted. And on this basis, the one who wiped at twelve o'clock should wipe until the next day, if he is a resident, until the next day at twelve o'clock. Did you understand, everyone? It is clear. If we say: it is from the occurrence of ritual impurity after the wearing, when does the period begin? Ten o'clock. If we say: from the wearing? It begins at five o'clock. But the strongest of the opinions is: that it is from the wiping, because the Shari'ah, rather because the hadiths indicate that,Sunan an-Nasa'i 129Sahih (Darussalam).
So it is clear that the wiping is the beginning of the period.
Now, a man wore them at five o'clock on Saturday, became ritually impure at ten o'clock on Saturday, and performed ablution at twelve o'clock on Saturday. On Sunday, he performed ablution at eight o'clock and prayed. Eight o'clock in the morning and he prayed on Sunday morning and prayed. What do you say about his prayer? If we say: the beginning of the period is from five o'clock, his prayer is not valid, because the ablution was not valid. And if we say: from the occurrence of ritual impurity, and the ritual impurity was on Saturday at ten o'clock, his prayer
The student: Is not valid
The Shaykh : Is not valid, because he wiped before the completion of the period. And if we say: from the wiping, it is valid a fortiori.
Now, if he wore them at five o'clock on Saturday, became ritually impure at ten o'clock, and wiped at twelve o'clock, and performed ablution on Sunday at one o'clock in the morning, meaning in the daytime? Pay attention.
The student: It is not valid
The Shaykh : It is not valid, why? Because it is after the end of the period according to all the opinions. Now, at eleven o'clock, according to the opinion that the beginning of the period is from the occurrence of ritual impurity, it is not valid, and according to the opinion that it is from the wiping, it is valid.
But if you wipe, consider all the opinions we mentioned and rely on the stronger opinion: that the beginning of the period is from what? From the wiping. So the beginning of the period is from twelve o'clock.
Now, is the considered factor the time or the number of prayers? The time. Even if he prays more than five, some of the common people say: the considered factor is the prayers, and if he has prayed five prayers, he cannot wipe after that. And this has no basis, because the hadiths came with one day and one night, they did not come with a number of prayers. And based on that: it is possible for a person to pray more than ten prayers while he is a resident. Is it possible? The scenario is if
The student: The sunnah and the rawatib
The Shaykh : No, it is not the sunnah and the rawatib. If he wore them on Saturday at five o'clock and then remained in his state of ablution all day, did not become ritually impure, then slept, and woke up from the next day, meaning from the night of Sunday, and wiped at five o'clock. Yes, he did not wipe until now. All the time before the wiping is not counted. So when does it begin? From the dawn of Sunday. It begins from the dawn of Sunday. Five o'clock on Saturday is gone, it is not counted because he did not wipe in it. Now, he remained in his state of ablution or performed ablution, the important thing is on Monday at eleven thirty, he wipes. Is his wiping valid or not valid? O our brothers, no, in the morning, eleven thirty, meaning I said eleven thirty, I mean four thirty, I mean on Monday at four thirty. Is his wiping valid? Because it is before the completion of the period. So he remained on Monday, all day Monday, in his state of purity. Is it valid or not valid? It is valid.
So now let us see: he wore the socks on the morning of Saturday, and the period did not end until after the 'Isha' prayer on the night of Tuesday, and he is a resident. How many prayers did he pray? He prayed five prayers on Saturday, and five prayers on Sunday, and five prayers on Monday. Fifteen prayers. The reason for that, O my brothers, is that the beginning of the period is from the first time he wiped after the occurrence of ritual impurity, and as you learned by the example.
The conditions we have enumerated now, how many? Three: that it be in a state of ritual purity, that it be in the case of minor ritual impurity, and that it be within the period specified by the Shari'ah.
The fourth: the purity of socks and leather socks, meaning: it is not permissible to wipe over something ritually impure, because the impure thing does not become anything but more impure by being wiped, so wiping over it is not valid.
The first condition: that he wears them in a state of ritual purity. If he wears them in a state other than ritual purity, even if he forgets, the wiping over them is not valid. If he was not in a state of ablution and forgot, and wore the leather socks, then the time for prayer came and he wiped and prayed, his prayer is not valid because he prayed without ablution. It is necessary that he wears them in a state of ritual purity. The evidence is the hadith of al-Mughirah ibn Shu'bah (may Allah be pleased with him)
He was with the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) on a journey, and he would pour his ablution water over him—meaning the water he uses for ablution—so when he reached the ankles, al-Mughirah reached out to remove his leather socks, but the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said, "Leave them"—meaning leave them on—because I put them on while in a state of purity.
أنه كان مع النبي صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم في سفر وكان يصب عليه وضوءه، - أي مائه الذي يتوضأ به - فلما وصل إلى حد الرجلين أهوى المغيرة لينزع خفيه، فقال النبي صلى الله عليه وعلى آله وسلم دعهما - يعني اتركهما - فإني أدخلتهما طاهرتينThe second condition: that this be in the case of minor ritual impurity, meaning in the case of ablution, not in the case of the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity or from menstruation or the like. So if a man is in a state of major ritual impurity, he must remove the leather socks or the socks and wash his feet. Why? The evidence is from the Qur'an and the Sunnah. The evidence that the leather socks are not wiped over in the case of major ritual impurity is from the Qur'an and the Sunnah. From the Qur'an, Allah the Exalted said:
And if you are in a state of janabah, then purify yourselves
وَإِنْ كُنْتُمْ جُنُبًا فَاطَّهَّرُواWhen we were on a journey, the Prophet (ﷺ) used to command us to wear our leather socks for three days and three nights, whether we had to answer the call of nature or slept. However, in case of ejaculation or sexual impurity, he commanded us to remove the leather socks.
أمرنا رسول الله صلى الله عليه وعلى آله وسلم إذا كنا سفرا -يعني مسافرين - أن لا ننزع خفافنا ثلاثة أيام ولياليهن، إلا من جنابة، ولكن من غائط وبول ونومAnd the rule is: "There is no wiping in the major purification, meaning the purification from major ritual impurity, except in dire necessity". Take this rule: "There is no wiping in the major purification except for dire necessity". For this reason, the head is not wiped over in it, whereas in ablution the head is wiped. The leather socks and socks are not wiped over in it, whereas in ablution the leather socks and socks are wiped over.
So let us give an example: If a man is afflicted with major ritual impurity, and he has socks that he wore in a state of ritual purity, then he performs the full ritual bath and wipes over the socks and prays, what do you say about his prayer? It is not valid because he wiped over the socks in the case of major ritual impurity, and there is no wiping over the socks in major ritual impurity. So if major ritual impurity befalls a man and he has socks or leather socks, it is obligatory for him to remove them and then wash the rest of his body, and this is necessary, because the rule we brought now is:
- Stand up -
The student: That there is no wiping ... over the socks
The Shaykh : In the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity
The student: Except for dire necessity
The Shaykh : Except for dire necessity. Well done. "There is no wiping in the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity except for dire necessity", such as a cast. Otherwise, there is no wiping over the leather socks in it, no wiping over the head, and no wiping over the turban. There is no wiping in the full ritual bath from major ritual impurity except for dire necessity.
How many conditions did we mention? Two.
The third condition: that this be within the specified time, meaning that the wiping be within the specified time, which is one day and one night for the resident and three days and their nights for the traveler. Pay attention: one day and one night for the resident and three days and their nights for the traveler. Look, the Shari'ah, when the traveler was in need of the leather socks, the Lawgiver gave him how much? Three days. And the resident, who has less need, was given one day and one night. So if he wipes after the completion of the period, the wiping is not valid and the ablution is not valid. So if a man's wiping period ends at exactly twelve o'clock in the daytime, and then he wipes over them at one o'clock in the daytime, what is the ruling on his ablution? Is it valid or not valid? It is not valid, because the wiping was after the end of the period. And the wiping must be within the period, because Allah the Exalted says:
These are the limits of Allah, so do not transgress them. And whoever transgresses the limits of Allah - it is those who are the wrongdoers.
تِلْكَ حُدُودُ اللَّهِ فَلا تَعْتَدُوهَا وَمَنْ يَتَعَدَّ حُدُودَ اللَّهِ فَأُولَئِكَ هُمُ الظَّالِمُونَAnd some say: from the occurrence of ritual impurity after the wearing.
And some say: from the wiping after the occurrence of ritual impurity. And if someone says: from the wiping, even if no ritual impurity occurred, like one who performs ablution for renewal, if someone says this, his saying is correct, except if it contradicts scholarly consensus. If it contradicts scholarly consensus, scholarly consensus takes precedence. The effect of this scholarly disagreement appears by example: A man wore the socks when he performed ablution for the Fajr prayer at five o'clock, then he became ritually impure at ten o'clock, then he performed ablution for the Zuhr prayer at twelve o'clock. When was the wearing? Five o'clock. When was the ritual impurity? Ten o'clock. When was the wiping? Twelve o'clock. So when does the period begin? According to the correct opinion: it begins from the wiping, meaning from twelve o'clock, and what is before the wiping is not counted. And on this basis, the one who wiped at twelve o'clock should wipe until the next day, if he is a resident, until the next day at twelve o'clock. Did you understand, everyone? It is clear. If we say: it is from the occurrence of ritual impurity after the wearing, when does the period begin? Ten o'clock. If we say: from the wearing? It begins at five o'clock. But the strongest of the opinions is: that it is from the wiping, because the Shari'ah, rather because the hadiths indicate that,
to wipe (over the Khuffs) for one day and one night for the resident
يمسح المقيم يومًا وليلةSo it is clear that the wiping is the beginning of the period.
Now, a man wore them at five o'clock on Saturday, became ritually impure at ten o'clock on Saturday, and performed ablution at twelve o'clock on Saturday. On Sunday, he performed ablution at eight o'clock and prayed. Eight o'clock in the morning and he prayed on Sunday morning and prayed. What do you say about his prayer? If we say: the beginning of the period is from five o'clock, his prayer is not valid, because the ablution was not valid. And if we say: from the occurrence of ritual impurity, and the ritual impurity was on Saturday at ten o'clock, his prayer
The student: Is not valid
The Shaykh : Is not valid, because he wiped before the completion of the period. And if we say: from the wiping, it is valid a fortiori.
Now, if he wore them at five o'clock on Saturday, became ritually impure at ten o'clock, and wiped at twelve o'clock, and performed ablution on Sunday at one o'clock in the morning, meaning in the daytime? Pay attention.
The student: It is not valid
The Shaykh : It is not valid, why? Because it is after the end of the period according to all the opinions. Now, at eleven o'clock, according to the opinion that the beginning of the period is from the occurrence of ritual impurity, it is not valid, and according to the opinion that it is from the wiping, it is valid.
But if you wipe, consider all the opinions we mentioned and rely on the stronger opinion: that the beginning of the period is from what? From the wiping. So the beginning of the period is from twelve o'clock.
Now, is the considered factor the time or the number of prayers? The time. Even if he prays more than five, some of the common people say: the considered factor is the prayers, and if he has prayed five prayers, he cannot wipe after that. And this has no basis, because the hadiths came with one day and one night, they did not come with a number of prayers. And based on that: it is possible for a person to pray more than ten prayers while he is a resident. Is it possible? The scenario is if
The student: The sunnah and the rawatib
The Shaykh : No, it is not the sunnah and the rawatib. If he wore them on Saturday at five o'clock and then remained in his state of ablution all day, did not become ritually impure, then slept, and woke up from the next day, meaning from the night of Sunday, and wiped at five o'clock. Yes, he did not wipe until now. All the time before the wiping is not counted. So when does it begin? From the dawn of Sunday. It begins from the dawn of Sunday. Five o'clock on Saturday is gone, it is not counted because he did not wipe in it. Now, he remained in his state of ablution or performed ablution, the important thing is on Monday at eleven thirty, he wipes. Is his wiping valid or not valid? O our brothers, no, in the morning, eleven thirty, meaning I said eleven thirty, I mean four thirty, I mean on Monday at four thirty. Is his wiping valid? Because it is before the completion of the period. So he remained on Monday, all day Monday, in his state of purity. Is it valid or not valid? It is valid.
So now let us see: he wore the socks on the morning of Saturday, and the period did not end until after the 'Isha' prayer on the night of Tuesday, and he is a resident. How many prayers did he pray? He prayed five prayers on Saturday, and five prayers on Sunday, and five prayers on Monday. Fifteen prayers. The reason for that, O my brothers, is that the beginning of the period is from the first time he wiped after the occurrence of ritual impurity, and as you learned by the example.
The conditions we have enumerated now, how many? Three: that it be in a state of ritual purity, that it be in the case of minor ritual impurity, and that it be within the period specified by the Shari'ah.
The fourth: the purity of socks and leather socks, meaning: it is not permissible to wipe over something ritually impure, because the impure thing does not become anything but more impure by being wiped, so wiping over it is not valid.