A man married a second wife, and the first wife had been spending on the house before and after his marriage without his request. After the marriage, she demands compensation from him. What is the ruling?

The questioner : His salary, meaning it is sufficient for him, so he spends on the house and what is needed. Then a day came and he married another woman.

The Shaykh : He came?

The questioner : Meaning he married another woman. So now the first wife started calculating what she gives. She says: "I wanted from you; when I used to work, I would spend in the house, buying things for my children, and so on. Of course, he did not notice this matter. I swear to Allah, she would bring her son a pair of pants or something, but he did not notice this. Now she has started to claim a share in it and says to him: 'Now I want you to give me this. I paid expenses in the house from my own work, from my own money, and things like that.' So he asks, saying: 'I am not neglecting my house. Food, drink, and housing are all secured for this wife, and she lacks nothing.' He said: 'It is possible that during my second marriage, for example, she was putting in what she was putting in. He feels that during the second marriage, the first wife was spending in the house from her own money, but he does not demand it from her. So, out of her jealousy that he married over her, she demands and says: 'I now want you to give me five hundred dinars or so for the period that I worked.' Yes, so he says: 'Does she have a right in the Shari'ah to demand this money from me, when I did not ask her for it, and she was only spending out of her own will and voluntarily?'"