Was the first ruling that the full ritual bath was obligatory upon ejaculation or upon penetration?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : The Shaykh :
The Shaykh: Go ahead.
The questioner : Was the first ruling that intercourse required ejaculation and not penetration?
The Shaykh : Without ejaculation.
The questioner : The first hadith:Jami` at-Tirmidhi 112Da'if (Darussalam) is the first, then the abrogating one...
The Shaykh : I mean the story of 'Uthman ibn 'Affan, who used to say that if he had intercourse and did not ejaculate, the ablution was sufficient for him. And the hadith says, as you know:Muwatta Malik 2:72.
The questioner : This is the abrogating one, not the abrogated one, O Shaykh.
The Shaykh : This is the abrogating one; that one is the abrogated one.
The questioner : So does that mean the first ruling was that ejaculation is what makes the full ritual bath obligatory?
The Shaykh: No...
The questioner: Yes.
The Shaykh : Ah, excuse me, yes. No, I mean regarding the two texts, the first ruling is that if a man has intercourse and does not ejaculate, he has to perform the ablution; he has to perform the ablution.
The questioner : In the first ruling, ejaculation is the only thing that makes the full ritual bath obligatoryJami` at-Tirmidhi 112Da'if (Darussalam).
The Shaykh : We are talking now about the ablution. Does the one who has intercourse and does not ejaculate have to perform the full ritual bath or not, right now?
The questioner : He has to perform the full ritual bath.
The Shaykh : Yes, this was not the case before.
The questioner: Yes.
The Shaykh: Is it clear?
The questioner : Shaykh, but the first hadith:Jami` at-Tirmidhi 112Da'if (Darussalam), and if he has intercourse, he only has to perform the ablution without ejaculating.
The Shaykh: Yes.
The questioner : This is the first ruling.
The Shaykh: All right.
The questioner : That is it.
The Shaykh : Later.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh: Go ahead.
The questioner : Was the first ruling that intercourse required ejaculation and not penetration?
The Shaykh : Without ejaculation.
The questioner : The first hadith:
"Water is for water'
إنَّما الماء من الماءThe Shaykh : I mean the story of 'Uthman ibn 'Affan, who used to say that if he had intercourse and did not ejaculate, the ablution was sufficient for him. And the hadith says, as you know:
When the circumcised part touches the circumcised part, ghusl is obligatory.
إذا مَسَّ الختان الختان فقد وجب الغسل ؛ أنزل أو لم ينزلThe questioner : This is the abrogating one, not the abrogated one, O Shaykh.
The Shaykh : This is the abrogating one; that one is the abrogated one.
The questioner : So does that mean the first ruling was that ejaculation is what makes the full ritual bath obligatory?
The Shaykh: No...
The questioner: Yes.
The Shaykh : Ah, excuse me, yes. No, I mean regarding the two texts, the first ruling is that if a man has intercourse and does not ejaculate, he has to perform the ablution; he has to perform the ablution.
The questioner : In the first ruling, ejaculation is the only thing that makes the full ritual bath obligatory
"Water is for water'
إنَّما الماء من الماءThe Shaykh : We are talking now about the ablution. Does the one who has intercourse and does not ejaculate have to perform the full ritual bath or not, right now?
The questioner : He has to perform the full ritual bath.
The Shaykh : Yes, this was not the case before.
The questioner: Yes.
The Shaykh: Is it clear?
The questioner : Shaykh, but the first hadith:
"Water is for water'
إنَّما الماء من الماءThe Shaykh: Yes.
The questioner : This is the first ruling.
The Shaykh: All right.
The questioner : That is it.
The Shaykh : Later.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
Source
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