The Shaykh’s remarks on the verse regarding the believers seeing their Lord on the Day of Resurrection.

The Shaykh : We return now to the verse Why did they interpret it as “gazing at the pleasure of their Lord”? What is the meaning of this? What is the necessity? Ah, because Allah cannot be seen. What is the evidence? He cannot be seen because the one who sees is the created being. These are claims piled one upon another, with no evidence for any of them, neither from the texts nor from reason. In fact, the sacred texts invalidate this figurative interpretation. So here they employed the primary tool for demolishing the meanings of the sacred texts, which is interpreting them figuratively. The second verse, which we said is not as explicit as the first, is where Allah the Exalted said: This is a verse in the Noble Qur'an that is a reality requiring clarification, just like the first verse. The first verse is clear: As for this verse, it requires clarification, like many verses of the Qur'an. The Messenger (peace be upon him) interpreted it, and the righteous predecessors interpreted it following the Messenger (peace be upon him). There is no issue with that. He (peace and blessings be upon him) said, and he once read this verse: He (peace be upon him) said: “Paradise is the good thing; Paradise.” This is a literal interpretation: “al-Hasanah” in this verse is Paradise. This is an authentic hadith narrated by Imam Muslim in his *Sahih* from the hadith of Sa'd ibn Abi Waqqas (may Allah be pleased with him). Why did these people turn away from following the predecessors in interpreting these two verses, meaning interpreting the first as required by the Arabic language and its style, along with the Sunnah? As for the Sunnah, you all know the famous hadith that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) was in a gathering when the full moon rose over them, and he said: “No harm will befall you,” or another narration: meaning you will not doubt seeing Him. Because when the crescent moon rises, one person says to another, “Do you see the crescent?” “No, I don't see it below.” They gather together until they determine the point of the crescent's rising. “No, this is the full moon; you do not gather together in seeing it; you do not gather together in seeing it.” So why did those later generations, such as the Mu'tazilah and others, turn away from interpreting this first verse according to its apparent meaning? First, because it is supported by the mass-transmitted hadiths according to the scholars of hadith. Second, we might find an excuse for them not interpreting the second verse if the clarification from the Messenger (peace be upon him) did not reach them. Perhaps we can find an excuse for the early Mu'tazilah, just as we find an excuse for many jurists, who may be among the great imams, when they establish a jurisprudential opinion contrary to the correct Sunnah. Why? Because the correct Sunnah may not have reached them.