Are the prophets (peace be upon them) all infallible?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : He said, "Are the prophets infallible?"
The questioner : All of them.
The Shaykh : All of them, very well.
The questioner : So my point was... the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him):Sunan Ibn Majah 4251Hasan (Darussalam).
The Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : I mean, regarding the topic...
Another questioner: Peace be upon you.
The Shaykh : And upon you be peace, and the mercy of Allah and His blessings.
Any research, my brother, where there is disagreement or discussion, requires clarifying the objective. So when it is said: "The infallibility of the prophets," is the intended meaning of this infallibility infallibility in conveying the message, i.e., conveying only what Allah revealed to them? Or is the intended meaning absolute infallibility, such that no error, however small or trivial, can occur from them? And is the intended meaning that they are infallible from all of this even before prophethood; that is, before the revelation descended upon them? This is what must be clarified and explained so that the discussion with the person can proceed.
What we believe and testify to Allah is that the term "infallibility of the prophets" does not exist in the Book or the Sunnah. This does not exist at all, neither in the Qur'an nor in the Sunnah. So when a Muslim wants to speak about any issue in religion, he should adhere in his speech to what has come in the Book and the Sunnah. If we know, above all, that the term "infallibility of the prophets" does not exist in the Book and the Sunnah, that means the issue is delicate. Because as long as this well-known term today, "infallibility of the prophets," has no existence in the Book or the Sunnah, we must know, then, if this claimed infallibility is correct, what is its evidence? What is its basis? Since the term "infallibility" is not mentioned in the Book or the Sunnah with the intended meaning of this speaker and his like—and I said "with this meaning" so that some people do not rush to object and say: "How can you say this when Allah (Mighty and Majestic) said explicitly in the Qur'an:[Al-Ma'idah 5:67]?"—because we will say that this infallibility is not that infallibility. This is explicit infallibility...
The questioner : All of them.
The Shaykh : All of them, very well.
The questioner : So my point was... the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him):
Every son of Adam commits sin, and the best of those who commit sin are those who repent.
كل بني آدم خطَّاء ، وخير الخطَّائين التوَّابونThe Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : I mean, regarding the topic...
Another questioner: Peace be upon you.
The Shaykh : And upon you be peace, and the mercy of Allah and His blessings.
Any research, my brother, where there is disagreement or discussion, requires clarifying the objective. So when it is said: "The infallibility of the prophets," is the intended meaning of this infallibility infallibility in conveying the message, i.e., conveying only what Allah revealed to them? Or is the intended meaning absolute infallibility, such that no error, however small or trivial, can occur from them? And is the intended meaning that they are infallible from all of this even before prophethood; that is, before the revelation descended upon them? This is what must be clarified and explained so that the discussion with the person can proceed.
What we believe and testify to Allah is that the term "infallibility of the prophets" does not exist in the Book or the Sunnah. This does not exist at all, neither in the Qur'an nor in the Sunnah. So when a Muslim wants to speak about any issue in religion, he should adhere in his speech to what has come in the Book and the Sunnah. If we know, above all, that the term "infallibility of the prophets" does not exist in the Book and the Sunnah, that means the issue is delicate. Because as long as this well-known term today, "infallibility of the prophets," has no existence in the Book or the Sunnah, we must know, then, if this claimed infallibility is correct, what is its evidence? What is its basis? Since the term "infallibility" is not mentioned in the Book or the Sunnah with the intended meaning of this speaker and his like—and I said "with this meaning" so that some people do not rush to object and say: "How can you say this when Allah (Mighty and Majestic) said explicitly in the Qur'an:
O Messenger, announce that which has been revealed to you from your Lord, and if you do not, then you have not conveyed His message. And Allah will protect you from the people
يَا أَيُّهَا الرَّسُولُ بَلِّغْ مَا أُنْزِلَ إِلَيْكَ مِنْ رَبِّكَ وَإِنْ لَمْ تَفْعَلْ فَمَا بَلَّغْتَ رِسَالَتَهُ وَاللَّهُ يَعْصِمُكَ مِنَ النَّاسِ
Source
www.al-albany.com
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.
