How valid is the claim of those who cite the story of Yusuf (peace be upon him) to justify working under a disbelieving system?

The questioner : In "Zubdat al-Tafsir" by Shaykh 'Umar al-Ashqar, in his tafsir of Surat Yusuf, he says that the appointment of Yusuf (peace be upon him) under the authority of the king is cited as evidence for the permissibility of a believer holding a position in a state of disbelief. So what is your comment?

The Shaykh : I cannot comment until I know what lies behind this, because I would say yes, it is possible. I give a simple example, as is the current reality: if we say that all Muslim states do not rule by what Allah has revealed, then at least most Muslim states do not rule by what Allah has revealed. Can you not be a preacher who admonishes the people and teaches them under a disbelieving rule?

The questioner : Shaykh, I meant when I mentioned the Algerian parliament...

The Shaykh : I know, my brother. That is why I gave you an example that encompasses this point, but before that I asked what lies behind this statement. I fear, and this is what I think, and Allah knows best, that the brother is one of our brothers, and we do not declare anyone pure before Allah, but I fear that he is influenced by the current atmosphere and the parties that see entering parliaments as a means. They take the Qur'anic text mentioned earlier as a proof for working in parliaments under a disbelieving system. Our answer is on two levels: as a basic principle and as a derivative. I actually started with the derivative earlier so we can reflect on what is intended by this phrase. I gave you an example earlier that any Muslim can be an employee in some job, for example, being a preacher in a mosque while the ruler is a disbeliever. But in this position, he does not serve disbelief, nor does he serve the cross, nor does he serve ruling by other than what Allah has revealed. If the intention of this example is along these lines, then there is no problem, correct? Now we ask the one who cites the verse—let us call it the Yusufian verse—does he imagine that Yusuf (peace and blessings be upon him), when he was asked by the Aziz of Egypt , was he ruling by a system imposed by the Aziz of Egypt, or was he ruling by a system imposed by the Lord of all workers? He will not be able to answer anything but the other answer, is that not so? Now we say: can those who enter parliaments follow the footsteps of Yusuf (peace and blessings be upon him) in their ruling? By no means, by no means, what you are promised is far away. Therefore, this argument permits something and frightens us of things. The least that can be said is that it is feared that this argument will be exploited for other than the benefit of Islam and Muslims. Then I say, and therefore, I will say that among the specific characteristics of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) is his saying , and among them is mentioned . So the Shari'ah of Yusuf is not our Shari'ah. Here, this argument is cut off from its root and its origin. Is that clear? Now it is finished.

The questioner : Likewise, regarding the brother... he is also confused about whether, for example, it is permissible in all cases for one to be under the banner or rulers who do not rule by Islam.

The Shaykh : Okay, what do you have?
Please go ahead.