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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Does the hadith: "Change this white hair and keep it away from black" indicate with absolute certainty that dyeing with black is not permissible, or is there an exception?

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The questioner : May Allah reward you with good. A questioner says, O honorable Shaykh, does the hadith:
Change this white hair and avoid black. غيروا هذا الشيب وجنبوه السواد
indicate with absolute certainty that dyeing with black is not permissible, or is there an exception?

The Shaykh : All right. First, the phrase "does it indicate with absolute certainty" is a very serious word. This is because if we were to examine the Quranic and Prophetic texts and say that we only accept what has absolute certainty in its indication, we would miss many of the rulings of the Shari'ah. It is not required for evidence that its indication be absolute, nor that its authenticity be absolute—pay attention, my brother.
First: The evidence is the Quran, and second: the Sunnah.
The authenticity of the Quran is absolute, do you agree with this? Why? Because it is mass-transmitted. The Quran is taken by the young from the old, by the male from the female, and by the female from the male; this is a known matter. However, its indication of a ruling may be absolute or may be probable. So, His saying, the Exalted:
And those who are taken in death among you and leave wives behind - they, [the wives, shall] wait four months and ten [days] والذين يتوفون منكم ويذرون أزواجا يتربصن بأنفسهن أربعة أشهر وعشرا
[Al-Baqarah 2:234]
Take the verse. This indicates that the waiting period of a woman whose husband has died is how long? Four months and ten days.
And His saying, the Exalted:
And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth وأولات الأحمال أجلهن أن يضعن حملهن
[At-Talaq 65:4]
indicates that the waiting period of a pregnant woman is the delivery of the pregnant woman, whether the duration is long or short. All right, if a pregnant woman gives birth one month after her husband's death, what do you say? But all right, what do we do with the verse
And those who are taken in death among you and leave wives behind - they, [the wives, shall] wait four months and ten [days] والذين يتوفون منكم ويذرون أزواجا يتربصن بأنفسهن أربعة أشهر وعشرا
[Al-Baqarah 2:234]
? All right, this is general and this is general. For this reason, 'Ali ibn Abi Talib (may Allah be pleased with him) and Ibn 'Abbas (may Allah be pleased with them both) held that if a pregnant woman's husband dies, she observes the waiting period for the longer of the two periods, the longer of the two periods. That is, for example, if she gives birth before four months and ten days, what? She completes four months and ten days. And if four months and ten days complete before she gives birth, she completes it until she gives birth. But this opinion, although it has a point of view, is contrary to the evidence. The evidence is what is established in the two Sahihs that Subay'ah al-Aslamiyyah gave birth after her husband's death by a few nights, so the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) permitted her to marry. It became known by this that a pregnant woman observes the waiting period from death and divorce until she gives birth, whether the duration is short or long.
Divorced women remain in waiting for three periods والمطلقات يتربصن بأنفسهن ثلاثة قروء
[Al-Baqarah 2:228]
. What is the qur'? It was said menstruation, and it was said purity. Therefore, its indication of one of them is probable. For this reason, it must be known to the one who asks the question that it is not correct to say "is its indication absolute?" Because if we did not rely except on what has an absolute indication, we would miss a great deal of the rulings. The indication is either absolute or probable, and Allah, the Exalted, does not burden a soul except with what it can bear.
In any case, we say that his saying, (peace and blessings be upon him):
Change this white hair and avoid black. غيروا هذا الشيب وجنبوه السواد
indicates clearly the obligation of avoiding black, and that dyeing with black is forbidden. And what indicates this is that dyeing white hair with black is a contradiction of Allah's ruling, Allah's cosmic ruling. Why? Because Allah, the Exalted, has decreed by His wisdom that as a person advances in age, his hair must turn white, except for a reason; it may turn white before his age advances, either due to grief or otherwise. In any case, if he dyes it black, it is as if he is expressing with his state that he is not pleased with Allah, the Exalted, making the hair white, so he turned it to what? To black. And black is the hair of whom? The hair of youth. So it is as if he is not pleased to be an old man. Then it has been reported in the Sunan a hadith, which some authenticated and others hesitated over, with a severe warning for the one who dyes with black. Yes.
The summary of the matter is that we do not say to one who argues with evidence, "is its indication of this ruling absolute?" Because this is a great error, for if we did not rely on the evidence except on what has an absolute indication, we would miss a great deal of the rulings of the Shari'ah.
Second: The stronger position is that dyeing with black, dyeing white hair with black, is forbidden. Yes.

The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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