Clarification that it is permissible to divorce a woman who does not menstruate, even if he had intercourse with her during her period of purity.

The Shaykh : An exception to this is the woman who does not menstruate. It is permissible to divorce her, even if he had intercourse with her in a state of purity, such as a woman who underwent a uterine procedure where her uterus was removed. It is permissible to divorce her, even if he did not perform the ritual bath from major ritual impurity due to her. A woman who has grown old until her menstruation has stopped is also permissible to divorce, even if he had intercourse with her in a state of purity. Do you understand now? Who is the exception to our statement that "purity is when he has intercourse with her"? It is the one who does not menstruate, whether she does not menstruate due to old age, due to a procedure, or for any other reason. Why? Because the woman who does not menstruate does not have her waiting period determined by menstruation; rather, her waiting period is determined by months, specifically three months. All right.