If a man has intercourse with his wife during her period of purity, is it true that it is not permissible for him to divorce her until she menstruates and then becomes pure?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Your Eminence, if a man’s wife was menstruating, then she became pure and the period of menstruation ended, and then he had intercourse with her, is it true that he has no right to divorce her? If he had intercourse with her, he has no right to divorce her until she menstruates and then becomes pure?
The Shaykh : That is correct.
The questioner : Is that so?
The Shaykh : This is the divorce in accordance with the Sunnah.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh : May Allah preserve you.
The questioner: Amen.
The Shaykh : That is correct.
The questioner : Is that so?
The Shaykh : This is the divorce in accordance with the Sunnah.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good.
The Shaykh : May Allah preserve you.
The questioner: Amen.
Source
www.al-albany.com
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.
