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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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I swore an oath to a group of people and said to them: By Allah, my wife is forbidden to me, like my mother and my sister, if you do not do such and such. And after that, I found that this matter

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The questioner : He says:The questioner : I swore an oath to a group of people and said to them: By Allah, my wife is forbidden to me, like my mother and my sister, if you do not do such and such. And after that, I found that if this matter is completed and they do the thing I said, there is no public benefit in it, nor benefit for these individuals. So I said to them: There is no need to do what I said; leave the matter as it is. What is the legal ruling in this matter, even though I am in a position to make them do what I said? Knowing that this oath was made in a state of anger, but I was aware of what I was saying?

The Shaykh : Yes, first we say that it is obligatory for a person not to habituate his tongue to swearing oaths in the manner mentioned in the question, saying: Do such and such, and if you do not do it, then my wife is forbidden to me like my mother. This is forbidden for a person to say; it is not permissible. If he sees it in the interest to swear an oath over a group of people, what should he swear by? He should swear by Allah, based on the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):
Whoever has to take an oath should swear by Allah or remain silent. من كان حالفاً فليحلف بالله أو ليصمت
Sahih al-Bukhari 2679
And he (peace and blessings be upon him) said:
He who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah, has indeed committed an act of Kufr or Shirk من حلف بغير الله فقد كفر أو أشرك
Riyad as-Salihin 1711
This is not from the category of swearing by Allah that constitutes shirk (associating partners with Allah) or kufr (disbelief), but it is prohibited. We say: Swear by Allah and do not swear using this formulation. However, if this thing occurred from him, and he said: If you do such and such, then my wife is forbidden to me like my mother, and if they did that, would his statement be zihar (likening one's wife to a forbidden relative) or would it be an oath? The scholars differed on this. Some said it is zihar, and some said it is an oath. If we say it is zihar, you have known what follows from zihar. And if we say it is an oath, it is possible that this can be resolved by the expiation of an oath. As for his saying that he said it in a state of anger but he was aware of what he was saying, we say: If a man is angry but he is aware of what he is saying, then this anger has no effect. Yes.

The questioner : May Allah bless you.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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