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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Does the poet's statement, "Our God says: of every fruit there are pairs," indicate that Ibn al-Qayyim considers it permissible to convey the Qur'an by meaning? And is this a quotation?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : The statement... "Our God says: of every fruit there are pairs"... does this mean... that we convey the Qur'an by meaning?

The Shaykh : Yes. Yes, indeed. And what do you say about this?
The student: We did not hear.

The Shaykh : He says: The author's statement: "It is sufficient from the enumeration to say: Our God says*** of every fruit there are pairs" Does this indicate that Ibn al-Qayyim considers it permissible to convey the Qur'an by meaning? Yes?
The student: ... .

The Shaykh : Perhaps he intended to mean an allusion, otherwise the wording of the verse is the wording of the verse, the verse is
In both of them are of every fruit, two kinds. فيهما من كل فاكهة زوجان
[Ar-Rahman 55:52]
but only the word "in it" is what created the issue.

The questioner : A quotation?

The Shaykh : Yes?

The questioner : A quotation.

The Shaykh : But the verse is altered; a quotation brings the verse with its exact wording.
In any case, if the author (may Allah have mercy on him) considers that the addition of "in it" is for the sake of the meter, and that he intended the wording of the verse, or intended only to allude to the verse—and that is the apparent meaning—he intended only to allude to the verse.

The questioner : He intended to allude, O Shaykh?

The Shaykh : Yes, he intended the meaning of the verse, the meaning of the verse.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Three. That is enough, then, O... he says: We took three.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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