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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If a man has intercourse with his wife while making up days from Ramadan, is the severe expiation required of him?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : If a woman has to make up days from Ramadan and she fasts them after Ramadan has ended, and her husband has intercourse with her, is the severe expiation required of him, or is the prohibition specific to Ramadan?

The Shaykh : Yes, he says: This woman is fasting to make up Ramadan, so her husband had intercourse with her?
If it was without her choice and he forced her, then she owes nothing and her fast is complete. If it was with her desire, then she has sinned, and she must make up that day, but she does not owe the expiation, because the expiation is specific to the daytime of Ramadan for one upon whom fasting is obligatory. As for one upon whom it is not obligatory, even if he is fasting in Ramadan, he does not owe the expiation. An example is a man who, for instance, takes his family to Makkah during the days of Ramadan and fasts, and during the day he wants to have intercourse with his family. We say: Yes, you may have intercourse with your family, and nothing is required of you except making up the day, making up that day. This is because the traveler is not required to fast. Pay attention to this point. If no one asks you for a ruling about a pilgrim in Makkah who has intercourse with his wife in Ramadan, do not say: Oh Allah, you owe the expiation. Be careful of this. Did you understand my words or not?
Did you understand my words or not?

The questioner : I understood.

The Shaykh : Fine.

The questioner : The expiation is specific to Ramadan.

The Shaykh : The expiation is not obligatory except if the intercourse is during the daytime of Ramadan for one upon whom fasting is obligatory.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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