Exegesis of the saying of Allah the Exalted: “And fear a Day when no soul will avail another in anything, nor will intercession be accepted from it,” and a mention of the modes of recitation in “nor will it be accepted”

Then Allah the Exalted said: meaning, take precaution against this Day, and what is meant by it is the punishment of that Day, meaning, fear the punishment that will occur on that Day, and by that He means the Day of Resurrection. meaning, it will not avert anything from it. “Soul” (nafs) is an indefinite noun in the context of negation, right? In the context of negation, because “soul” is the subject of “avail” (tajzi), so it is in the context of negation, and an indefinite noun in the context of negation implies generality. So, no soul can avail another soul in anything, meaning, avert anything from it. Not a father for his children, nor children for their fathers, nor a friend for his friend, nor anyone for anyone, absolutely. Even the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: and by that he meant both this world and the Hereafter.
And His saying: is also an indefinite noun in the context of negation. And if an indefinite noun is in the context of negation, it includes bringing benefit to someone or averting harm from them. On the Day of Resurrection, no one will bring benefit to anyone or avert harm from them, no matter who they are. It is not valid for us to say that some people take from the good deeds of their oppressor and benefit from them. We say that this oppressor is the one who wasted his good deeds by his oppression of the servants of Allah. And in the recitation: so on the recitation: the matter in it is clear, why? Because the subject is feminine and the verb, if its subject is feminine, becomes feminine. And on the recitation with the yaa, we say the justification for it being without the feminine marker is two things: the first thing is that the femininity is not real, and the second thing is the separation between the verb and the subject, yes, or the passive subject. For this reason, Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
And it is obligatory for a connected or implied verb to have a feminine marker
Then he mentioned that it is permissible to use the masculine marker with separation. If you say: Hind stood up, is the feminine marker obligatory? The sun rose, is the feminine marker obligatory? Listen to what Ibn Malik says: “And it is obligatory for a connected or implied verb to have a feminine marker”, so the feminine marker is obligatory. And if you say: Hind said to her people, is the masculine and feminine marker permissible? Yes, the masculine and feminine marker are permissible due to the presence of separation. And if you say: The car moved, the masculine and feminine marker are permissible, because the femininity is not real. The explanation has ended. Do you have questions or shall we proceed? Yes, Adam.The questioner : Questions from the previous lesson, or...

The Shaykh : Previous, unless this question occurred to you at that time?

The questioner : Meaning, it occurred to me at that time.