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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If a woman offers herself to a man to marry her, and then he divorces her so that she becomes permissible to her first husband, what is the ruling?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : This is from the practice of Adam Muhammad. If a woman conspires with her husband, who has divorced her three times, to marry another man and then separate from him so she can return to her first husband, as if she offers herself to a man, for example.
The question: Is this among the deception that is prohibited, or not? And if it is deception, does she become permissible to her first husband? Did you understand?
First: It is not possible for a woman to offer herself to a man. This is specific to the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) by the explicit text of the Qur'an
and a believing woman if she gives herself to the Prophet [and] if the Prophet wishes to marry her, [this is] only for you, excluding the [other] believers وَامْرَأَةً مُؤْمِنَةً إِنْ وَهَبَتْ نَفْسَهَا لِلنَّبِيِّ إِنْ أَرَادَ النَّبِيُّ أَنْ يَسْتَنْكِحَهَا خَالِصَةً لَكَ مِنْ دُونِ الْمُؤْمِنِينَ
[Al-Ahzab 33:50]
But if it is assumed that the first man instructed another person, saying: "Marry my wife, and when you have made her permissible, divorce her," and he might give him the mahr, then in this case she does not become permissible to the first man, nor does she become permissible to the second. As for the second, his marriage is invalid because it is a marriage of a muhallil. As for the first, she does not become permissible to him because it is necessary that her marriage [be valid].
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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