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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If the husband is unable to have intercourse and divorces his wife, is she permissible for her first husband?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : ...intercourse and he divorced her... she marries first.

The Shaykh : No, she is not permissible, because the Messenger of Allah said
till you taste the second husband and he tastes you حتى تذوقي عُسيْلته ويذوق عُسيْلتك
Sahih al-Bukhari 5317
and this is the secret behind Allah the Exalted saying
until [after] she marries a husband other than him حتى تنكح زوجا غيره
[Al-Baqarah 2:230]
and not saying "until she marries a man."

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : How?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : That is, if the marriage is annulled due to his inability to have intercourse, she must marry another man and he must have intercourse with her.

The questioner :"And with leprosy, elephantiasis, castration, impotence, and the presence of a clear hermaphrodite, and madness, even if for an hour, and leprosy and leprosy, annulment is established for each of them, even if it occurred after the contract, or if the other party had a similar defect. And if one is satisfied with the defect, or if there is evidence of it with his knowledge, he has no option. And the annulment of one of them is not completed except by a judge".
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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