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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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How did Asma' speak about herself and 'A'ishah, that they became in a state of ihram with the mother of 'A'ishah, while she did not become in a state of ihram?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Did Asma' not mention only herself and 'A'ishah...?

The Shaykh : We said that this is considered in terms of the group. As for 'A'ishah, she did not become in a state of ihram, but what was not led as a sacrificial animal became permissible, because she was with the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him). There is no need for her to say "so we became in a state of ihram," because it is known that if it had been a mere 'Umrah, she would have said so.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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