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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Why did the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) here refer to the wage of the prostitute and the fee of the fortune-teller as such, and not as a price?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : That is, the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) used the terms "wage" and "fee."

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : ... applies to the meaning of unlawful sexual intercourse and the meaning of fortune-telling.

The Shaykh : Because this one takes it as if it were a wage, and that one also takes it. The scholars said that it is given to him without any effort.

The questioner : Is the wage and the fee in the sense of a price?

The Shaykh : ... unlawful sexual intercourse has no price whatsoever, and likewise ...

The questioner : ... its prohibition.

The Shaykh : ... This is because anything whose price is prohibited is itself forbidden. This is the principle, for when Allah forbids something, He forbids its price.

The questioner : The dog?

The Shaykh : The dog is known from other evidence.

The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : And what is its knowledge ... the other evidence.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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