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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Is abrogation specific to our Shari'ah, or did it exist before us in previous Shari'ahs?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Is abrogation inclusive of previous nations, or is it specific to the Ummah of Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him)?

The Shaykh : No, it is for us and for others. Listen to the saying of Allah the Exalted:
For wrongdoing on the part of the Jews, We made unlawful for them [certain] good foods which had been lawful to them فَبِظُلْمٍ مِنَ الَّذِينَ هَادُوا حَرَّمْنَا عَلَيْهِمْ طَيِّبَاتٍ أُحِلَّتْ لَهُمْ
[Surat al-Nisa: 160]. This is abrogation; these pure things were lawful, then they were abrogated and made forbidden. The Shari'ah is one. As for the two Shari'ahs, 'Isa said to the Children of Israel:
to make lawful for you some of what was forbidden to you ولأحل لكم بعض الذي حرم عليكم
[Ali 'Imran 3:50]
Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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