Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) says, "So the preceding one is made accusative by a verb they omitted..." Is it not said that "omitted" is used instead of "they omitted" because a verb is not omitted?
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The student: Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) says: "So the preceding one is made accusative by a verb they omitted". You previously said, may Allah preserve you, that a verb is not omitted. What is your opinion?
The Shaykh : Correct. We explained that if he had said "by a verb omitted," "like: 'Zayd' in answer to 'Who?'"
The student: And "wa fa."
The Shaykh : No, "man wa fa."
The student: They mentioned it in the chapter on the object of the verb...
The Shaykh : ...
The student: ...
The Shaykh : "By a verb they omitted" means: omitted.
The student: How does this agree with that?
The Shaykh : Yes?
The student: How does this agree with that?
The Shaykh : This is a matter of linguistic flexibility; the correct phrasing is to say "omitted." If he had said:
"So the preceding one is made accusative by a verb omitted *** certainly, in agreement with what they have known"
the speech would be correct. Now, let us take up a discussion on the substitute for the subject.
The Shaykh : Correct. We explained that if he had said "by a verb omitted," "like: 'Zayd' in answer to 'Who?'"
The student: And "wa fa."
The Shaykh : No, "man wa fa."
The student: They mentioned it in the chapter on the object of the verb...
The Shaykh : ...
The student: ...
The Shaykh : "By a verb they omitted" means: omitted.
The student: How does this agree with that?
The Shaykh : Yes?
The student: How does this agree with that?
The Shaykh : This is a matter of linguistic flexibility; the correct phrasing is to say "omitted." If he had said:
"So the preceding one is made accusative by a verb omitted *** certainly, in agreement with what they have known"
the speech would be correct. Now, let us take up a discussion on the substitute for the subject.