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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And it may be declined by a preposition other than *rub* *** through deletion, and some of it is considered consistent."

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : He said:
"And it may be declined by a preposition other than *rub*"
"It may be declined by a preposition other than *rub*" means that a noun may be declined by a preposition that is deleted, other than *rub*. We have established that *rub* is declined while being deleted. Similarly, other prepositions may be declined while being deleted. Although, as we have previously discussed regarding the transitivity and intransitivity of verbs, if it is deleted...
"And if it is deleted, the case of the declined noun is accusative, by transmission"
"And in *anna* and *an*, it is consistent *** with safety from confusion, like 'I was surprised that two [men]...'"
Or did we not pass over this?
The student: We did not finish, meaning we did not finish.

The Shaykh : ... .
The student: The last verses...

The Shaykh : No, no. The disagreement, yes. But when one forgets, it is as if nothing passed by him. Yes, the important point is that the original rule is that when the preposition is deleted, the declined noun is in the accusative case. This is the original rule. However, it may be deleted and the genitive case remains. And that is in *rub* after?
The student: *Fa* and *waw*.

The Shaykh : And *waw*. And it may be declined by a preposition other than *rub* with deletion.
"And it may be declined by a preposition other than *rub* *** through deletion"
And his saying: "It may be declined" is for minimization, because sometimes it is declined. But what is the original rule? The original rule is mention, but with deletion, what is the original rule? What is the original rule?
The student: Either nominative or accusative.

The Shaykh : fatigue
"And if it is deleted, the case of the declined noun is accusative, by transmission"
This was mentioned previously. But if it is deleted and the genitive case remains, it is rare.
"It may be declined by a preposition other than *rub*". An example is said: It was said to Ru'bah ibn al-'Ajaj, "How are you this morning?" He said, "Khayr (well) and praise be to Allah." The meaning is: "I am well this morning and praise be to Allah." So it was declined by the deleted *ba*. The noun was declined by the deleted *ba*. Now, are we allowed to do this?
The student: No.

The Shaykh : No, because it is rare in the Arabic language, and the rare is restricted to what is heard; it is not for us. But if one of you makes a mistake and declines with a deleted preposition, and we say to him, "Why?" and he says, "Because I am Ru'bah," is that acceptable? Is it acceptable if he is Ru'bah? It is acceptable if he is Ru'bah. Yes, he said:
"And some of it is considered consistent". And "some of it" means: some of this usage with the deletion of the preposition is considered consistent. That is, the one who deletes in the genitive case remains with the effect of the genitive case while it is deleted, consistently. Consistently means: by analogy. And they gave as an example for this the *tamyiz* (complement) of *kam* (how many) in the declarative sense. They say that the *tamyiz* of declarative *kam* is declined by a deleted preposition. For example, if I say to you: "How many dirhams did you spend in the vineyard?" Is *kam dirham* declarative or interrogative?
The student: Declarative.

The Shaykh : How many dirhams? I say, "Many dirhams did I spend in the vineyard." "How many dirhams did you spend in the vineyard?" This is declarative, and some call it *tathkir* (indicating plurality). The *tamyiz* of declarative *kam* is declined; its *tamyiz* is declined. "How many dirhams did you spend in the vineyard?" They said that *dirham* here is declined by the deleted *min*. And the evidence that it is declined by the deleted *min* is that *min* frequently enters its declined noun
And how many cities have We destroyed وَكَمْ مِنْ قَرْيَةٍ أَهْلَكْنَاهَا
[Al-A'raf 7:4]
And how many cities وكم من قرية
[Al-A'raf 7:4]
,
How many a small company has overcome a large company كَمْ مِنْ فِئَةٍ قَلِيلَةٍ غَلَبَتْ فِئَةً كَثِيرَةً
[Al-Baqarah 2:249]
and the like. They said: So this is evidence that what follows it is declined by the deleted *min*, and it is consistent.
And some grammarians said that the noun declined after it is declined by addition. *Kam* is a possessive, and what follows it is the possessed noun, declined by addition. In that case, there would be no evidence for what Ibn Malik said. But Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) holds the view of Sibawayhi in this issue, that the *tamyiz* of *kam* is declined by what? By the deleted *min*. And he said that the evidence for that is that it comes mentioned in many places. "And some of it is considered consistent". Now, if Allah wills, the next lesson will be all the prepositions, 21 verses. Do you like us to divide it?
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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