Explanation of the saying of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And perhaps the second gives the first *** femininity if it is for the deletion of a muhmal."
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : The order that I have
"And perhaps the second gives the first *** femininity if it is fit for deletion"
He said: "And perhaps the second gives the first femininity" Lower your voices. What is the second that gives?
The student: The one to which something is added (the mudaf ilayh).
The Shaykh : The one to which something is added, and the first: the one to which it is added (the mudaf). Perhaps the second gives the first femininity, and it is known from his saying "gives it femininity" that the first is masculine. The first is masculine and the second is feminine.
"if it is fit for deletion" If the pronoun refers back to the first, it is fit for deletion. And what does "fit for deletion" mean? It means it became eligible for deletion, meaning if its deletion is permissible. The meaning is that if the possessive is masculine and the possessed is feminine, the possessed may sometimes give it femininity, and it is given the ruling of the feminine even if it is masculine, but on the condition that its deletion is valid and that one can do without it by relying on the second. Is its deletion valid, and can one do without it by relying on the second? What is an example of this?
The student: His saying, the Exalted:[Al-A'raf 7:56].
The Shaykh : No, no, the opposite of this. For example, if I said: "I cut off all of his finger," or is this the opposite? I see you did not review. Yes.
The student: Part of his finger.
The Shaykh : Look at what you have.
The student: I cut off part of his fingers.
The Shaykh : Some of his fingers, meaning some of his fingers were cut off. Here, the word "some" is masculine, and "fingers" is feminine, and the verb here is feminine: "cut off." If we had considered the possessive, we would have had to say in the verb: "he cut off his fingers." But here it gave it femininity because if "some" were deleted and one said "she cut off his fingers," the speech would be correct. However, it does not achieve complete correctness, because there is a difference between "some" and "all." If you said "she cut off his fingers," it would not be the same in its meaning as saying "she cut off some of his fingers." But the meaning is that it is valid, at least in general, and exact correspondence is not required, for it is impossible for anything to correspond with both the deleted and the non-deleted. But the meaning is that it is valid in general. And this is, in fact, his saying: "And perhaps the second gives" It appears from it that it is restricted to what is heard, and that what the language has brought in this regard is followed, and what it has not brought, the original is that it remains as it was. If you read the explanation to us, the explanation I have is not in this house.
The student: Shall we read it?
The Shaykh : Yes.
"And perhaps the second gives the first *** femininity if it is fit for deletion"
He said: "And perhaps the second gives the first femininity" Lower your voices. What is the second that gives?
The student: The one to which something is added (the mudaf ilayh).
The Shaykh : The one to which something is added, and the first: the one to which it is added (the mudaf). Perhaps the second gives the first femininity, and it is known from his saying "gives it femininity" that the first is masculine. The first is masculine and the second is feminine.
"if it is fit for deletion" If the pronoun refers back to the first, it is fit for deletion. And what does "fit for deletion" mean? It means it became eligible for deletion, meaning if its deletion is permissible. The meaning is that if the possessive is masculine and the possessed is feminine, the possessed may sometimes give it femininity, and it is given the ruling of the feminine even if it is masculine, but on the condition that its deletion is valid and that one can do without it by relying on the second. Is its deletion valid, and can one do without it by relying on the second? What is an example of this?
The student: His saying, the Exalted:
Indeed, the mercy of Allah is near
إن رحمت الله قريبThe Shaykh : No, no, the opposite of this. For example, if I said: "I cut off all of his finger," or is this the opposite? I see you did not review. Yes.
The student: Part of his finger.
The Shaykh : Look at what you have.
The student: I cut off part of his fingers.
The Shaykh : Some of his fingers, meaning some of his fingers were cut off. Here, the word "some" is masculine, and "fingers" is feminine, and the verb here is feminine: "cut off." If we had considered the possessive, we would have had to say in the verb: "he cut off his fingers." But here it gave it femininity because if "some" were deleted and one said "she cut off his fingers," the speech would be correct. However, it does not achieve complete correctness, because there is a difference between "some" and "all." If you said "she cut off his fingers," it would not be the same in its meaning as saying "she cut off some of his fingers." But the meaning is that it is valid, at least in general, and exact correspondence is not required, for it is impossible for anything to correspond with both the deleted and the non-deleted. But the meaning is that it is valid in general. And this is, in fact, his saying: "And perhaps the second gives" It appears from it that it is restricted to what is heard, and that what the language has brought in this regard is followed, and what it has not brought, the original is that it remains as it was. If you read the explanation to us, the explanation I have is not in this house.
The student: Shall we read it?
The Shaykh : Yes.