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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the ruling on using indirect speech?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : What is the ruling on using indirect speech?

The Shaykh : If indirect speech is used against an oppressor, it is forbidden. For example, if a person claims a right against him and says, "You owe me a thousand riyals," and he says, "By Allah, I do not owe you a thousand riyals," intending by "do not" the meaning of "I do owe you a thousand riyals," this is not permissible.
Second: If the indirect speech is to save a protected person from destruction, it is obligatory.
Third: If it is for a benefit or a need, it is permissible according to the benefit and the need.

The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : The need was so that they could kill this man, and they reassured him that they had not followed the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) in a way that would reassure them.

The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : No, this man was a nobleman of his people, so that they might come to him through deception so that they could get hold of him.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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