Explanation of the author's statement: "…if he reaches puberty during it or after it within its time, he must repeat it…"
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : He said: "And he strikes it for ten [years]. If he reaches puberty during it or after it within its time, he must repeat it". If a boy reaches puberty during the prayer or after it within its time, he must repeat it. How does he reach puberty during it? Yes, he reaches puberty during it if we have determined his birth time precisely. For example, if he was born at one o'clock in the afternoon on the first day of Muharram, when does he reach puberty?
The attendees: ...
The Shaykh : At one o'clock on the first day of Muharram. He reaches puberty now. When he started praying, one o'clock in the afternoon arrived. He reached puberty now, right?
The questioner : Yes
The Shaykh : He reached puberty during it. He reached puberty during it. Do you see the subtlety of the scholars, may Allah have mercy on them? Now, here is an issue: a boy fasted in Ramadan, then reached puberty during the day. Does he make up this day or not?
The questioner : He does not make it up.
The Shaykh : The school of thought says he does not make it up. The school of thought says he does not make it up, stating that he was obligated to abstain before he reached puberty. He was obligated to abstain before he reached puberty, or not? If he was obligated to abstain at the dawn of the day while he was still a minor and had not reached puberty, and fasting is not valid unless it is a complete day, then he does not make it up. As for prayer, the time extends from its entry to its exit, and this is how they distinguish. However, some of our companions, may Allah have mercy on them, transferred the ruling of one to the other. This is called *takhrīj* (derivation). That is, they said it should be stated that if he reaches puberty during the prayer or after it within its time, he does not repeat it, by analogy with fasting. Or we say that if he reaches puberty during the day, he makes it up, by analogy with prayer. In other words, he derived the ruling by transferring the ruling of one to the other. The stronger opinion in this matter is that he does not repeat it, neither the obligatory prayer nor the fast, neither the fast nor the prayer. The reason for this is that in prayer, he has prayed in the manner he was commanded, so the demand is dropped from him by his action. The demand is dropped from him. That is why he says, "I prayed the Zuhr prayer," or not? He says, "I prayed the Zuhr prayer." If the prayer demand that was directed to him has been fulfilled by him, the demand is now finished, whether this demand was for a voluntary prayer or an obligatory one. The important point is that the man says, "How can you oblige me to do something I have already done as I was commanded?" If he did the thing as he was commanded, how can he be commanded to make it up a second time? The correct view in both issues is that he does not have to repeat it and does not have to make it up. The reason is that he performed the act of worship in the manner requested of him, so the demand for it is dropped. It is gone now; the demand is no longer directed to him. Accordingly, he is not obligated to repeat it. This is supported by the fact that this situation occurs frequently. Indeed, it is recorded from the Companions, may Allah be pleased with them, that they used to order those who reached puberty during the time to repeat the prayer.
The questioner : Shaykh, if he reaches puberty… does it mean he is prevented?
The Shaykh : If he reaches puberty…
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : He says he reached puberty two days before the end of Ramadan. Does he fast the remaining two days in which he reached puberty? The answer is yes, he must fast them as an obligation. He must fast them. Does he fast the days before them? No, he does not fast them. Not even according to the school of thought. He does not fast the previous days. In fact, even on the day he reached puberty, he does not fast. Do you understand? Now, Ghannam.
The questioner : How do we say that he prays if he is of sound mind? We order him to pray. And how did the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) and the Companions… like this, I understand.
The Shaykh : No, I don't understand… I mean, they are very intelligent.
The questioner : But the Messenger said…
The Shaykh : We did not say there is a possibility that the Messenger said this based on the majority. The majority is that discernment occurs at age seven. This is the common case. The one who has discernment before age seven is considered intelligent, meaning his intelligence ratio is high. Yes, that is right, Talaal.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, he is a Muslim in ruling. I say he is a Muslim in ruling.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Absolutely, because he did not glorify Allah, did not recite al-Fatihah, did not recite what was easy, and did not say "I bear witness that there is no god but Allah" in the tashahhud.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, no, we do not leave him at all. Even if he says "I bear witness that there is no god but Allah," we should follow him. Because those who became Muslims from that time are like a date palm sapling; if you plant it, it needs attention and care, or it will die.
The questioner : Okay...
The Shaykh : Yes, he is a Muslim. We say he is a Muslim.
The questioner : He said, "I did not become a Muslim."
The Shaykh : Yes, but it is sufficient for him now that he performed the actions of Muslims. This prayer is specifically for Muslims. The second opinion in this issue is that if he reaches puberty during it or after it within its time, right? What is their reasoning? Yes, that he performed what he was addressed with in the manner he was addressed with, so he is not obligated to repeat it. Is that clear? And this second opinion is the correct one. The second opinion is the correct one. The answer to their statement that it became obligatory on him is to say: rather, his conscience is cleared of it because he prayed it. Yes, this reasoning is sufficient.
The attendees: ...
The Shaykh : At one o'clock on the first day of Muharram. He reaches puberty now. When he started praying, one o'clock in the afternoon arrived. He reached puberty now, right?
The questioner : Yes
The Shaykh : He reached puberty during it. He reached puberty during it. Do you see the subtlety of the scholars, may Allah have mercy on them? Now, here is an issue: a boy fasted in Ramadan, then reached puberty during the day. Does he make up this day or not?
The questioner : He does not make it up.
The Shaykh : The school of thought says he does not make it up. The school of thought says he does not make it up, stating that he was obligated to abstain before he reached puberty. He was obligated to abstain before he reached puberty, or not? If he was obligated to abstain at the dawn of the day while he was still a minor and had not reached puberty, and fasting is not valid unless it is a complete day, then he does not make it up. As for prayer, the time extends from its entry to its exit, and this is how they distinguish. However, some of our companions, may Allah have mercy on them, transferred the ruling of one to the other. This is called *takhrīj* (derivation). That is, they said it should be stated that if he reaches puberty during the prayer or after it within its time, he does not repeat it, by analogy with fasting. Or we say that if he reaches puberty during the day, he makes it up, by analogy with prayer. In other words, he derived the ruling by transferring the ruling of one to the other. The stronger opinion in this matter is that he does not repeat it, neither the obligatory prayer nor the fast, neither the fast nor the prayer. The reason for this is that in prayer, he has prayed in the manner he was commanded, so the demand is dropped from him by his action. The demand is dropped from him. That is why he says, "I prayed the Zuhr prayer," or not? He says, "I prayed the Zuhr prayer." If the prayer demand that was directed to him has been fulfilled by him, the demand is now finished, whether this demand was for a voluntary prayer or an obligatory one. The important point is that the man says, "How can you oblige me to do something I have already done as I was commanded?" If he did the thing as he was commanded, how can he be commanded to make it up a second time? The correct view in both issues is that he does not have to repeat it and does not have to make it up. The reason is that he performed the act of worship in the manner requested of him, so the demand for it is dropped. It is gone now; the demand is no longer directed to him. Accordingly, he is not obligated to repeat it. This is supported by the fact that this situation occurs frequently. Indeed, it is recorded from the Companions, may Allah be pleased with them, that they used to order those who reached puberty during the time to repeat the prayer.
The questioner : Shaykh, if he reaches puberty… does it mean he is prevented?
The Shaykh : If he reaches puberty…
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : He says he reached puberty two days before the end of Ramadan. Does he fast the remaining two days in which he reached puberty? The answer is yes, he must fast them as an obligation. He must fast them. Does he fast the days before them? No, he does not fast them. Not even according to the school of thought. He does not fast the previous days. In fact, even on the day he reached puberty, he does not fast. Do you understand? Now, Ghannam.
The questioner : How do we say that he prays if he is of sound mind? We order him to pray. And how did the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) and the Companions… like this, I understand.
The Shaykh : No, I don't understand… I mean, they are very intelligent.
The questioner : But the Messenger said…
The Shaykh : We did not say there is a possibility that the Messenger said this based on the majority. The majority is that discernment occurs at age seven. This is the common case. The one who has discernment before age seven is considered intelligent, meaning his intelligence ratio is high. Yes, that is right, Talaal.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, he is a Muslim in ruling. I say he is a Muslim in ruling.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Absolutely, because he did not glorify Allah, did not recite al-Fatihah, did not recite what was easy, and did not say "I bear witness that there is no god but Allah" in the tashahhud.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, no, we do not leave him at all. Even if he says "I bear witness that there is no god but Allah," we should follow him. Because those who became Muslims from that time are like a date palm sapling; if you plant it, it needs attention and care, or it will die.
The questioner : Okay...
The Shaykh : Yes, he is a Muslim. We say he is a Muslim.
The questioner : He said, "I did not become a Muslim."
The Shaykh : Yes, but it is sufficient for him now that he performed the actions of Muslims. This prayer is specifically for Muslims. The second opinion in this issue is that if he reaches puberty during it or after it within its time, right? What is their reasoning? Yes, that he performed what he was addressed with in the manner he was addressed with, so he is not obligated to repeat it. Is that clear? And this second opinion is the correct one. The second opinion is the correct one. The answer to their statement that it became obligatory on him is to say: rather, his conscience is cleared of it because he prayed it. Yes, this reasoning is sufficient.
