What is the evidence for your statement that intercourse other than in the private parts does not invalidate the i'tikaf of the one in i'tikaf?
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The questioner : We said that intercourse other than in the private parts does not invalidate the i'tikaf of the one in i'tikaf... or unless he ejaculates?
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : Unless he ejaculates?
The Shaykh : The evidence is that they say it is called intercourse.
The questioner : So this is not considered intercourse?
The Shaykh : But.
The questioner : The one who ejaculates other than in the private parts.
The Shaykh : Yes, because the general rule is that ejaculation entails what intercourse entails... and although this is not consistent, they said that this is their reasoning. I do not have anything clear in this issue.
The questioner : And if it happens, we say.
The Shaykh : Yes, we say...
The Shaykh : How?
The questioner : Unless he ejaculates?
The Shaykh : The evidence is that they say it is called intercourse.
The questioner : So this is not considered intercourse?
The Shaykh : But.
The questioner : The one who ejaculates other than in the private parts.
The Shaykh : Yes, because the general rule is that ejaculation entails what intercourse entails... and although this is not consistent, they said that this is their reasoning. I do not have anything clear in this issue.
The questioner : And if it happens, we say.
The Shaykh : Yes, we say...