Explanation of the author's statement: "Or from someone other than the buyer, or if his father or son bought it, it is permissible."
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The Shaykh :"If he bought it from someone other than the buyer" means if he sold the commodity for a deferred price, and then the one who bought it sold it to another person, and then the original buyer bought it from that other person for a lower cash price, this is permissible. This is because the prohibition of riba is far removed here, as the transaction took place with a third party. For example, I sold this car for one hundred thousand over a year, and then its owner sold it to another person for whatever amount, whether small or large, or gave it to him as a gift; it does not matter. Then I bought it from the second person for eighty thousand in cash. This is permissible because this transaction is with a third party, not with the party to whom I sold the car. Therefore, the concern of riba is far removed, and it is valid. All right.
I sold this car for one hundred thousand over a year, and then the buyer died and the car passed to his heir. If I bought it from his heir for eighty thousand in cash, is it permissible or not?
The questioner : It is permissible.
The Shaykh : It is permissible, because I bought it from someone other than the buyer, so the concern of riba is far removed.
He says, "Or if his father bought it", meaning the father of the seller, or if his son bought it, it is permissible. This means, for example, Zayd sold his car for one hundred thousand to a person over a year, and then Zayd's father bought this car from the person who had bought it from his son for eighty thousand in cash. This is permissible, because the transaction is now with a third party, unless the father has a partnership in this car, in which case it is not permissible, because it will return to the original seller. The same is said regarding the son: if Zayd sold this car to a person for one hundred thousand over a year, and then his son bought it from the person to whom his father had sold it for eighty thousand in cash, this is permissible, because the transaction became with a third party. For this reason, he said it is permissible. Yes.
I sold this car for one hundred thousand over a year, and then the buyer died and the car passed to his heir. If I bought it from his heir for eighty thousand in cash, is it permissible or not?
The questioner : It is permissible.
The Shaykh : It is permissible, because I bought it from someone other than the buyer, so the concern of riba is far removed.
He says, "Or if his father bought it", meaning the father of the seller, or if his son bought it, it is permissible. This means, for example, Zayd sold his car for one hundred thousand to a person over a year, and then Zayd's father bought this car from the person who had bought it from his son for eighty thousand in cash. This is permissible, because the transaction is now with a third party, unless the father has a partnership in this car, in which case it is not permissible, because it will return to the original seller. The same is said regarding the son: if Zayd sold this car to a person for one hundred thousand over a year, and then his son bought it from the person to whom his father had sold it for eighty thousand in cash, this is permissible, because the transaction became with a third party. For this reason, he said it is permissible. Yes.