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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is meant by the author's statement: "And it has a specific increase before possession, and its opposite is by its opposite"?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : The author's statement "And it has a specific increase before possession, and its opposite is by its opposite" ...?

The Shaykh : "Its opposite" means the opposite of the specific item. The opposite of the specific item is, for example, if he said the mahr is one hundred sa' of wheat, or, for example, the mahr is one hundred riyals. If the mahr is one hundred riyals, and the husband uses them to earn a living, buying and selling, and they become two hundred, whose is the profit? I am asking you. It is not specific. He did not say, "One hundred riyals," nor did he specify that this hundred is only one hundred riyals. This man used the one hundred riyals to earn a living, and he made a profit. Whose is the profit? The man's, because it is not specific.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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