If the husband asks the woman to hand herself over to him and does not specify a time limit for paying the mahr, and she consents, does she have the right to withhold herself afterwards?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original

The questioner : O Shaykh, if he said to her, meaning if he asked her to hand herself over to him and did not specify a time for him to pay her the mahr, and she consented to him immediately without stipulating anything, does she have the right afterwards...?

The Shaykh : She has the right to withhold herself, because she only handed herself over based on good faith.

Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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