"If it is deferred, or if the term has arrived before delivery, or if she delivered herself voluntarily, then she has no right to withhold herself"

The Shaykh :"If it is deferred, or if the term has arrived before delivery, or if she delivered herself voluntarily, then she has no right to withhold herself" These are three issues. If it is deferred, she has no right to withhold herself because she is the one who deferred the mahr by her own choice. So, if we assume a man married a woman with a mahr to be paid after one year, does she have the right to enjoy herself until the year passes? No, because she is the one who deferred the sadaq, so the matter was in her hands. He says, "Deliver yourself," or if it was deferred and the term arrived before delivery, she has no right to withhold herself. For example, she deferred the mahr for three months. The husband said, "I don't have money now, but in a month I will have money." They agreed to defer the mahr for three months. Before the term arrives, does she have the right to withhold herself? Why? Because she agreed to the deferral. Now, the term has arrived, and he has not taken her. After the term arrives, he comes to ask to take her before he pays the money. The money is now due, but it was originally deferred. Does she have the right to withhold herself after the deferred term has arrived? The author says she does not withhold herself. How can she not withhold herself when it is now due? He says because when she agreed to the deferral, it was obligatory for her to deliver herself during the initial period, is that not so? It is obligatory for her to deliver herself. So this obligation does not drop simply because the term has arrived. Yes, so there is a distinction between the case that was not deferred.