Continuation of the explanation of the author's statement: "If it was deferred, or became due before delivery, or she delivered herself voluntarily, then she has no right to withhold it"

The Shaykh : Is it not the case that she is obligated to deliver herself? This obligation is not lifted merely by the arrival of the due date. Yes, a distinction is made between the case where it was not deferred and the case where it was deferred. In the first case, she has the right to withhold herself; in the second case, she does not have the right to withhold herself. If someone asks, "What is the difference?" we say the difference is apparent. If she wanted to withhold herself during the deferral period, could she? No? She cannot withhold herself during the deferral period. So, if she did not withhold herself during the three months in the example we mentioned, how can it be said that she withheld herself when it became due? Do you understand now? The difference between the two is apparent. However, some scholars say that if it became due after the deferral and he delayed, she has the right to withhold herself, because it is now accurate to say that it is due. If he had asked for her before it became due, she would not have had the right to withhold herself because she agreed to the deferral. But now it has become due. For this reason, in the second scenario of the issue, she has the right to withhold herself if it became due after the deferral, just as she withholds herself in the case where it was not deferred at all. Now, if she delivered herself voluntarily, meaning the mahr was due and he asked her to deliver herself, and she said, "No, give me the mahr," he offers her something equivalent, as people say, a mattress, and tries to coax her, saying, "You and I are one, what you have is with me and what I have is with you." Yes, and the issue, if Allah wills, is easy. The poor woman, you know her weakness, said, "Okay, bring it to me tomorrow." He said, "Absolutely, if Allah wills, we will bring it tomorrow." So he took her, and his intention with "tomorrow" was the Day of Resurrection, because Allah says: Does she have the right to withhold herself now? The author says no, because she delivered herself, so she has no right to withhold herself. Now, the poor woman was deceived. He said, "Why didn't she take precautions for herself?" But the correct view is that if he delayed and she could not compel him to pay, and it is generally the case that she cannot compel him because it is difficult—if she demanded it, he might divorce her—then the correct view is that she has the right to withhold herself, even if she delivered herself voluntarily, because she may have been deceived. So she has that right. Yes.