Explanation of the author's statement: "The fifth: A vow of righteousness, whether absolute or conditional, such as performing prayer, fasting, and Hajj, or the like, as in saying: 'If Allah heals my sick person...'"
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The Shaykh : He said, "The fifth: A vow of righteousness, whether absolute or conditional". Righteousness is the act of doing good, like voluntary acts. What is the act of doing good?
The questioner : Obedience.
The Shaykh : Obedience and devotion. Devotion is the act of worship. So the meaning of righteousness is the act of doing good. A vow of righteousness is the same as what we call a vow of obedience, because obedience is good. It can be absolute or conditional, like when he said, "such as performing prayer, fasting, and Hajj, or the like", such as charity, 'Umrah, visiting the sick, and following funeral processions. Yes, and so on. There are many. Yes. A vow of obedience must be fulfilled. The author (may Allah have mercy on him) mentioned this. The important point is that it must be fulfilled, based on the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him)Sahih al-Bukhari 6696. The apparent meaning of the author's statement is that it includes both obligatory and non-obligatory acts. It includes both obligatory and non-obligatory. How does it include both? Prayer includes both obligatory and voluntary. So if he says, "I have a vow to Allah to pray the Zuhr prayer," it becomes obligatory upon him from two angles. What are they?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : It is obligatory by the original ruling of the Shari'ah and obligatory by the vow. It is obligatory by the vow. He said, "I have a vow to Allah to pay the zakah of my wealth." Similarly, it becomes obligatory upon him from two angles: the Shari'ah and the vow. Suppose he did not pay the zakah. He did not pay it. He must pay the expiation for an oath. Is that so or not? Good. If he had not made the vow, he would not have to pay the expiation for an oath, but he would sin by leaving the zakah. Is that clear? This is the benefit of our statement that a vow can be attached to an obligatory act.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : What is the summary of the benefit? Perhaps prayer does not come up for us, because one cannot leave prayer without becoming a disbeliever. But zakah, fasting, and Hajj are different. The important point is that a vow of an obligatory act is valid. The benefit of saying it is valid is that it becomes obligatory upon him from two angles, such that if he leaves it, he must pay the expiation in addition to the sin. He also sins more than if he had not made the vow, because when he makes the vow, it becomes obligatory upon him from both angles. This is the benefit of our statement that a vow can be attached to an obligatory act. Good. He must perform it, whether it is absolute or conditional. An absolute one is like saying, "I have a vow to Allah to pray two rak'ahs." He just said that. Do we say this is absolute or not?
The questioner : Absolute.
The Shaykh : I have a vow to Allah to read a part of the Qur'an. Is that right?
The questioner : Absolute.
The Shaykh : It is absolute. A conditional one is when he says, or it is conditional, like when he says, "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah to fast for a month". Is this conditional or not?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : So when he is healed, he must fast. And if he dies?
The questioner : He does not...
The Shaykh : He does not have to do anything. And if he remains sick?
The questioner : Yes, that is so.
The Shaykh : Similarly, he does not have to do anything. Is that clear? Good. And if he is healed after the death of the one who made the vow?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Is that right? He said, "If Allah heals my sick person." Pay attention to the example. "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah." Yes. "To give one hundred riyals in charity." Then he dies before being healed. Does he have to do anything?
The questioner : He owes nothing.
The Shaykh : He does not have to do anything. Good. There is no problem.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : He does not have to do anything because the condition did not occur during his lifetime, and the original state is that the conscience is clear. He did not have to do anything. This is clear. But if he is healed while the one who made the vow is insane, may Allah grant us well-being. He became insane and Allah healed his sick person during his insanity. Does he have to do anything or not?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : This requires consideration. Let us see. It appears that there is a distinction, but this is like the two opinions of Ibn Jinni.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Notice this. This man said, "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah to give one hundred dirhams in charity." Then the one who made the vow became insane, and Allah healed his sick person during his insanity.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : We have, we have now a cause and a condition. We have a cause and a condition. What is the cause of the obligation of charity with these dirhams?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, no. It is not the healing, my brothers.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Nor the illness. The vow is the cause of the obligation, or not? And the condition of the obligation?
The questioner : The healing.
The Shaykh : The healing. So the cause of the obligation occurred in a person while he was in a state of being accountable, and the condition of the obligation occurred while he was in a state of not being accountable, but he is liable for financial responsibility. Is he liable for financial responsibility? So it appears that his guardian must give the charity on his behalf, exactly like zakah. Because zakah is obligatory upon the insane person and the young child. Good. If he said, "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah to fast?" Is that right? This is actually the point of difficulty. Do we say that food is given on his behalf, or do we say that it is not obligatory because he is not one who is capable of fasting, unlike wealth, because he is one who is liable for wealth, like zakah and the liability for wealth that he destroys, and the like.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : This requires, by Allah, this requires hesitation. It requires looking into the matter. Do we say that when this man obligated fasting upon himself while he was of sound mind, it must be made up on his behalf, or do we say that it became obligatory upon him in a state where he is not one who is capable of fasting, unlike wealth, because the insane person is liable for wealth if the conditions of obligation are met, like zakah and liability, and the like. In any case, it is a matter for consideration. May Allah postpone it, if He wills.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes? Yes, my son?
The questioner : Obedience.
The Shaykh : Obedience and devotion. Devotion is the act of worship. So the meaning of righteousness is the act of doing good. A vow of righteousness is the same as what we call a vow of obedience, because obedience is good. It can be absolute or conditional, like when he said, "such as performing prayer, fasting, and Hajj, or the like", such as charity, 'Umrah, visiting the sick, and following funeral processions. Yes, and so on. There are many. Yes. A vow of obedience must be fulfilled. The author (may Allah have mercy on him) mentioned this. The important point is that it must be fulfilled, based on the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him)
Whoever vows that he will be obedient to Allah, should remain obedient to Him
من نذر أن يُطيع الله فليطعهThe questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : It is obligatory by the original ruling of the Shari'ah and obligatory by the vow. It is obligatory by the vow. He said, "I have a vow to Allah to pay the zakah of my wealth." Similarly, it becomes obligatory upon him from two angles: the Shari'ah and the vow. Suppose he did not pay the zakah. He did not pay it. He must pay the expiation for an oath. Is that so or not? Good. If he had not made the vow, he would not have to pay the expiation for an oath, but he would sin by leaving the zakah. Is that clear? This is the benefit of our statement that a vow can be attached to an obligatory act.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : What is the summary of the benefit? Perhaps prayer does not come up for us, because one cannot leave prayer without becoming a disbeliever. But zakah, fasting, and Hajj are different. The important point is that a vow of an obligatory act is valid. The benefit of saying it is valid is that it becomes obligatory upon him from two angles, such that if he leaves it, he must pay the expiation in addition to the sin. He also sins more than if he had not made the vow, because when he makes the vow, it becomes obligatory upon him from both angles. This is the benefit of our statement that a vow can be attached to an obligatory act. Good. He must perform it, whether it is absolute or conditional. An absolute one is like saying, "I have a vow to Allah to pray two rak'ahs." He just said that. Do we say this is absolute or not?
The questioner : Absolute.
The Shaykh : I have a vow to Allah to read a part of the Qur'an. Is that right?
The questioner : Absolute.
The Shaykh : It is absolute. A conditional one is when he says, or it is conditional, like when he says, "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah to fast for a month". Is this conditional or not?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : So when he is healed, he must fast. And if he dies?
The questioner : He does not...
The Shaykh : He does not have to do anything. And if he remains sick?
The questioner : Yes, that is so.
The Shaykh : Similarly, he does not have to do anything. Is that clear? Good. And if he is healed after the death of the one who made the vow?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Is that right? He said, "If Allah heals my sick person." Pay attention to the example. "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah." Yes. "To give one hundred riyals in charity." Then he dies before being healed. Does he have to do anything?
The questioner : He owes nothing.
The Shaykh : He does not have to do anything. Good. There is no problem.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : He does not have to do anything because the condition did not occur during his lifetime, and the original state is that the conscience is clear. He did not have to do anything. This is clear. But if he is healed while the one who made the vow is insane, may Allah grant us well-being. He became insane and Allah healed his sick person during his insanity. Does he have to do anything or not?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : This requires consideration. Let us see. It appears that there is a distinction, but this is like the two opinions of Ibn Jinni.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Notice this. This man said, "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah to give one hundred dirhams in charity." Then the one who made the vow became insane, and Allah healed his sick person during his insanity.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : We have, we have now a cause and a condition. We have a cause and a condition. What is the cause of the obligation of charity with these dirhams?
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, no. It is not the healing, my brothers.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Nor the illness. The vow is the cause of the obligation, or not? And the condition of the obligation?
The questioner : The healing.
The Shaykh : The healing. So the cause of the obligation occurred in a person while he was in a state of being accountable, and the condition of the obligation occurred while he was in a state of not being accountable, but he is liable for financial responsibility. Is he liable for financial responsibility? So it appears that his guardian must give the charity on his behalf, exactly like zakah. Because zakah is obligatory upon the insane person and the young child. Good. If he said, "If Allah heals my sick person, I have a vow to Allah to fast?" Is that right? This is actually the point of difficulty. Do we say that food is given on his behalf, or do we say that it is not obligatory because he is not one who is capable of fasting, unlike wealth, because he is one who is liable for wealth, like zakah and the liability for wealth that he destroys, and the like.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : This requires, by Allah, this requires hesitation. It requires looking into the matter. Do we say that when this man obligated fasting upon himself while he was of sound mind, it must be made up on his behalf, or do we say that it became obligatory upon him in a state where he is not one who is capable of fasting, unlike wealth, because the insane person is liable for wealth if the conditions of obligation are met, like zakah and liability, and the like. In any case, it is a matter for consideration. May Allah postpone it, if He wills.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes? Yes, my son?
