In the hadith: (Hajj is 'Arafah). Why do we not say that if a man has intercourse after standing at 'Arafah, his Hajj is not invalidated?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : It is mentioned in the hadith and it is mentioned in the hadith . Why do we not say, may Allah reward you, that the one who has intercourse invalidates his Hajj after his standing at 'Arafah, not after the first exit from the state of consecration?
The Shaykh : Before the standing at 'Arafah.
The questioner : After the standing at 'Arafah. Yes, why do we not say this?
The Shaykh : No, say why do we not say that if he has intercourse after the standing, his Hajj is not invalidated?
The questioner : This is my statement.
The Shaykh : No, that is not your statement. You want this, but you do not know about it.
The questioner : I said the invalidation of Hajj, if it occurred after 'Arafah, after the standing.
The Shaykh : You are saying: If intercourse occurs after the standing, then by analogy, the Hajj is not invalidated.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : No, no? Okay, let us say: If intercourse occurs after the standing and before the exit from the state of consecration, did it occur in a new state of consecration?
The questioner : No, the same one.
The Shaykh : In a complete state of consecration?
The questioner : No!
The Shaykh : After the standing and before the exit from the state of consecration.
The questioner : The first one.
The Shaykh : The first one, yes, meaning the night of Muzdalifah. If intercourse occurs, did it occur in a complete state of consecration or an incomplete one? Okay, if there is no difference between what is before the standing and what is after it, and the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him):, he only said it to build upon what follows it, and that if it is missed, the Hajj is missed. Otherwise, it is well known that the circumambulation of the House is the greatest of the pillars of Hajj, and it is after the standing.
That Hajj is 'Arafah
أن الحج عرفةThat whoever stands at 'Arafah has completed his Hajj
أن من وقف في عرفة فقد تم حجهThe Shaykh : Before the standing at 'Arafah.
The questioner : After the standing at 'Arafah. Yes, why do we not say this?
The Shaykh : No, say why do we not say that if he has intercourse after the standing, his Hajj is not invalidated?
The questioner : This is my statement.
The Shaykh : No, that is not your statement. You want this, but you do not know about it.
The questioner : I said the invalidation of Hajj, if it occurred after 'Arafah, after the standing.
The Shaykh : You are saying: If intercourse occurs after the standing, then by analogy, the Hajj is not invalidated.
The questioner : Yes.
The Shaykh : No, no? Okay, let us say: If intercourse occurs after the standing and before the exit from the state of consecration, did it occur in a new state of consecration?
The questioner : No, the same one.
The Shaykh : In a complete state of consecration?
The questioner : No!
The Shaykh : After the standing and before the exit from the state of consecration.
The questioner : The first one.
The Shaykh : The first one, yes, meaning the night of Muzdalifah. If intercourse occurs, did it occur in a complete state of consecration or an incomplete one? Okay, if there is no difference between what is before the standing and what is after it, and the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him):