Text copied Link copied

Al-Fatawa – home

﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

Scholar
Search mode

Does touching a woman invalidate one's ablution?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
Question:
Does a man touching his wife's hand, or the hand of a woman who is not his mahram, without intent invalidate the ablution?

Answer:
It does not invalidate the ablution. Touching a woman does not invalidate the ablution, whether she is his wife, his mahram, or someone else; it does not invalidate the ablution. Unless semen comes out of him, or pre-seminal fluid comes out of him. If pre-seminal fluid comes out, he performs ablution: he washes his private parts and performs ablution, his penis and his testicles, and performs ablution. Or if semen comes out with desire, he performs the full ritual bath—he owes the ghusl of janabah. As for if he touches her, or kisses (his wife) or touches her, and nothing comes out, his ablution is not invalidated.
As for His saying, the Exalted:
or you have contacted womenأَوْ لامَسْتُمُ النِّسَاءَ
[Surat al-Nisa: 43], the intended meaning is intercourse. "You have had intercourse with them" means that the Lord used a euphemism for intercourse. This is the correct view. Touching a woman does not invalidate the ablution in any case. This is the correct view, whether with desire or without desire. This is the true opinion.
But if he touches her, kisses his wife, or touches her, and pre-seminal fluid comes out of him, this obligates ablution. He washes his private parts and performs ablution. As for if he emits semen—semen comes out, meaning: desire preceded it—then he owes the ghusl of janabah. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) used to kiss his wives and pray without performing ablution. He used to be intimate with them and kiss them and pray without performing ablution—(peace and blessings be upon him). Yes.
Source binbaz.org.sa

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

Similar fatwas