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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Reading from Ibn Aqil’s commentary (may Allah have mercy on him), with the Shaykh’s annotations: " .

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The reader: In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.
: " And if it is with a following 'min' " .

The Shaykh : We corroborated this.
The reader: We did not corroborate it,
" And its raising of an explicit noun is rare, and when *** it follows a verb, it is often established
Do you not see among people a companion *** more deserving of honor than "

The noon is sakin (unvoweled)!

The Shaykh : Which one?
The reader: Min!

The Shaykh : Min al-sadiq, no, it is moved with a fathah like al-sadiq.
The reader: " Min al-sadiq:
The superlative form (af'ala) is not free from being suitable for a verb with its meaning to occur in its place, or not,
If it is not suitable for a verb with its meaning to occur in its place, it does not raise an explicit noun, but rather raises a hidden pronoun, such as: 'Zayd is better than 'Amr.' In 'better,' there is a hidden pronoun referring back to Zayd. So do not say: 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' raising 'his father' with 'better,' except in a weak language reported by Sibawayh "
.

The Shaykh : This is the permissible case, the one that says: it is permissible. This is the meaning of Ibn Malik's statement: " And its raising of an explicit noun is rare " . Now listen: 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' is it correct for us to make 'his father' a delayed subject?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : Yes?
The student: It is brought, his father is better than him.

The Shaykh : His father is better than him, is it suitable?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : No, 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' yes.
The student: The estimated sentence, O Shaykh?

The Shaykh : The estimated sentence: I passed by a man whose father is better than him.
The student: And after it?

The Shaykh : And after it.
The student: Does the pronoun refer back to 'I passed'?

The Shaykh : Yes, this is it. Its original form is: 'a man whose father is better than him,' meaning its meaning is that his father is better than him. This is the meaning of the sentence.
I say: It is not suitable for us to make 'his father' a subject, it is not suitable, because 'better,' as you see, has a fathah on it, so it is an attribute for 'man,' or not? But if we said: 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' it is correct, if we make it a subject and a predicate. But on the assumption that the wording is: 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' it is not correct, and the reason is that 'better' has now become an attribute?
The student: For the man.

The Shaykh : For the man, an attribute for the man, so it is not correct to make it a subject and a predicate.
The student: And the more appropriate?

The Shaykh : Good, and in this is evidence that this issue is an exception to the rule, which is: " That every pronoun whose estimation is 'he' is hidden by permission " , except this issue, because it is a pronoun hidden by obligation, because the explicit noun does not take its place, yes.
The student: His father!

The Shaykh : Where?
The student: Better than him, his father!

The Shaykh : On the assumption of the correctness of this language.
The student: No...

The Shaykh : We must say: 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' on the assumption of 'I passed by a man whose father is better than him,' not that he is better than his father, yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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