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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Continuation of the Shaykh’s commentary on the explanation: " . . . Likewise, what follows a kasrah, or what follows *** a kasrah, or a sukun that has followed a kasrah, and the separation of the hah is counted as a separation *** so"

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : It is permissible ... in order to match it. Likewise, if it occurs after a letter that follows a kasrah. He did not say, "And likewise, if the alif occurs after a kasrah." Why?
The student: It is not possible.

The Shaykh : Because it is not possible for an alif to occur after a kasrah. If it occurs after a kasrah, is that correct? If it occurs after a letter that has a kasrah before it, is that correct or not? It is possible. It is possible for it to occur after a letter that has a kasrah before it. It is possible. For this reason, he said: "or if it occurs after a letter that follows a kasrah, as in kitab". Is it pronounced with imalah or not?
The student: It is pronounced with imalah.

The Shaykh : It is pronounced with imalah, yes. And likewise, or after two letters that follow a kasrah, the first of which is a sukun, like here? Shimal. The alif occurred after two letters, the first of which has a kasrah, the first of which is a sukun. Shimal: two letters before which is a kasrah, and the first of which is a sukun. Or both are moving letters, but one of them is like in "an yadribaha." This is also pronounced with imalah, even if it is at the end. And both are not separated by two letters that occur after the kasrah, the first of which is a sukun, as in "hadhina darhamak." The mim is a moving letter, and the ra' before it is a sukun, and they are separated by a hah, so there is no impediment. For this reason, he said:
"So darhamak, whoever pronounces it with imalah has not erred". Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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