A man is a mahram to the daughters of a woman with whom he has had intercourse
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Q3: A woman married a husband and he divorced her, then she married another husband after him, and she had daughters from the other husband. Is her first husband a mahram to the daughters from her last husband, or not?
A3: It is not permissible for a man to marry the daughters of a woman with whom he has had intercourse, and he is considered a mahram to all her daughters, whether born before or after the marriage. Allah the Exalted said:[An-Nisa 4:23] up to His saying: [An-Nisa 4:23]. However, if he has not had intercourse with her, he is not a mahram to her daughters; based on the saying of Allah the Exalted: [An-Nisa 4:23].
And success is from Allah, and may Allah send prayers and blessings upon our Prophet Muhammad, his family, and his Companions.
A3: It is not permissible for a man to marry the daughters of a woman with whom he has had intercourse, and he is considered a mahram to all her daughters, whether born before or after the marriage. Allah the Exalted said:
Prohibited to you [for marriage] are your mothers
حُرِّمَتْ عَلَيْكُمْ أُمَّهَاتُكُمْyour step-daughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives unto whom you have gone in
وَرَبَائِبُكُمُ اللاتِي فِي حُجُورِكُمْ مِنْ نِسَائِكُمُ اللاتِي دَخَلْتُمْ بِهِنَّBut if you have not gone in unto them, there is no sin upon you.
فَإِنْ لَمْ تَكُونُوا دَخَلْتُمْ بِهِنَّ فَلا جُنَاحَ عَلَيْكُمْAnd success is from Allah, and may Allah send prayers and blessings upon our Prophet Muhammad, his family, and his Companions.
Source
www.alifta.gov.sa
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.