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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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A woman bought a servant for herself, so he became her property; is it permissible for her to ask him to have intercourse with her?

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The questioner : O our esteemed Shaykh, a woman bought a servant for herself and he became her property. Is it permissible for her to ask him to have intercourse with her on the basis that he is among those whom her right hand possesses, or is it not permissible?

The Shaykh : I seek refuge in Allah from this unjust fatwa. It is not permissible, of course. First, it is not permissible to buy servants, whether male or female. There are only slaves, and it is not permissible for slaves to be originally free people who were then sold and bought in some countries that do not know Islam, or that know Islam but do not know its rulings.
And if a free woman has a slave, it is not prescribed for her to be the wife of this slave unless she frees him and then marries him. This is permissible as long as the free woman agrees to it. As for him remaining her slave, I do not mean, of course, the servant who is brought today from some countries, who is free. This is not permissible except through a legal contract, and he must be a Muslim. Not only that, but he must be a righteous Muslim. I do not know what prompted this question, because, praise be to Allah, there is no one today who issues a fatwa like this unjust one. Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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