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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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A man who has intercourse with a woman and then divorces her: her mother becomes a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to him

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A man who has intercourse with a woman and then divorces her: her mother becomes a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to him

His Eminence the Shaykh: If a man marries a woman and then divorces her, does this husband become a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to the mother of this woman? And does the father of this husband become a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to this woman whom the man divorced? And is it better to visit them? Likewise, is it better to visit the divorced wife of the father?
As for the first point, when a man marries a woman, her mother and her paternal grandmothers all become mahram (a relative one may not marry) to the husband, whether the wife remains with him or he divorces her, or the marriage is annulled, or she dies, as long as he contracted a valid marriage with this wife. Then all her mothers, from the direct mother to the grandmothers, are mahram (a relative one may not marry) to him.
Likewise, the father of the husband: if a man marries a woman and then divorces her, it is obligatory for this woman to cover her face from the husband when the waiting period ends. As for his father, it is permissible for her to uncover her face in his presence; because he is still a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to her.
As for the matter of visiting, this is an issue that relates to custom. If it is customary for them to visit one another, there is nothing wrong with it. Otherwise, she is not among the close relatives unless she is close through another relationship. As for the mere fact that she is the father's wife, she is not among the close relatives.
Source shamela.ws

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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