Is there a comment on the hadith "He leaves his food and his desire for My sake" regarding those who cite it as proof for the invalidity of fasting?

The questioner : A comment on what you have mentioned, and that is regarding those who cite the hadith

The Shaykh : This.

The questioner : along with the invalidity of the statement?

The Shaykh : This is a common error. It is true that the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) said in a well-known hadith that Allah the Exalted is the One who takes charge of the reward of the fasting person Himself. Why did He say ? Here, "his desire" cannot be interpreted in the comprehensive, absolute sense that includes even a permissible desire. For example, I applied perfume earlier, and some of you applied perfume during the day while fasting. This is a fragrant scent; this is a desire, but it is a permissible desire, not a forbidden one. If you pass by some roads, for example, planted with citrus trees whose flowers have a scent that carries to the end of the road, and you smell it, this is a desire. You embraced your wife, as we mentioned earlier; this is a desire. We do not want to generalize beyond that. All of these are desires, but they do not fall under the generality of the hadith. Rather, it means he leaves his forbidden desire here. So interpret it not as breaking the fast physically, but as the general breaking of the fast that includes all forbidden acts. So he leaves his forbidden desire. As for expanding this circle to include permissible desires, no scholar says that. Yes.