If a man immerses himself in water or pours it over his body without performing wudu' in between, is it a valid ritual bath?

The questioner : If a man immerses himself in water or pours water over his entire body without performing wudu' in between, is it a valid ritual bath?

The Shaykh : Repeat that for me?

The questioner : If a man immerses himself in water or pours water over his entire body without performing wudu' in between, is it a valid ritual bath?
Abu Layla : ... His voice is not suitable, forgive us.

The Shaykh : If the form of the question matches the other form mentioned by the Hanafis in their books, the answer is no. The other form is when a man is walking on the shore of the sea or a river, his foot slips, and he is in a state of major ritual impurity, so he goes out and water hits his entire body. Do they say he comes out pure and can pray? They said: It is permissible; because they have something I call a philosophy, in distinguishing between objectives and means. They say intention is obligatory in objectives, not in means. So the bath is a means, and it is valid.

The questioner : The one who immersed himself in water or poured it over him.

The Shaykh : Ah. Did you notice the form I presented to you regarding the Hanafis?

The questioner : Yes, I noticed.

The Shaykh : Is this the same, or does this differ from that?

The Shaykh : It is the same; but some of them cite as evidence the man who was in a state of major ritual impurity, and then water became available, so the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) gave this man [water] and said, "Pour it over yourself," and did not mention wudu'. So they said that this is evidence that merely pouring water over the body is sufficient for a valid ritual bath.

The Shaykh : No problem, you are repeating the question, but I am asking a clarifying question: Does your question differ from the form I mentioned regarding the Hanafis?

The questioner : No, it would not be different.

The Shaykh : It does not differ; but when you finished your speech, it seemed to differ. So I will say something: The crux of the issue in the Hanafi form is the absence of intention. In your example, is the intention also absent and not present?

The questioner : It is present in it.

The Shaykh : Ah, so it is not like that; it differs completely. So the issue you are asking about is a man who intended to perform the bath for major ritual impurity and did not perform wudu'; does that suffice for him or not? Is that the question?

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : Okay, the answer is yes; because in Sahih Muslim, from the hadith of Jubayr ibn Nufayr, wudu' was not mentioned in this hadith, whereas it was mentioned in the hadith of Aisha, and in the hadith of Maymunah in the two Sahihs, that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), when he performed the bath for major ritual impurity, would start with wudu', so he would perform wudu' and then pour water over his head. So the recommended complete wudu' is, excuse me, the bath is preceded by wudu' before the bath, but this wudu' is not a condition for the validity of the bath, but rather a recommended practice. And this is the answer to what you asked.