A man teased his wife during the day in Ramadan and a white, clear fluid came out of her; what is the ruling on her fast?
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The questioner : The questioner says: A man teased his wife during the day in Ramadan and a white, clear fluid came out of her; what is the ruling on her fast?
The Shaykh : It is permissible for a person to tease his wife while fasting, whether in Ramadan or outside of Ramadan. If something comes out of him, if it is pre-seminal fluid, his fast is valid because the emission of pre-seminal fluid does not invalidate the fast. If it is semen, his fast is defective, because the emission of semen due to the action of the fasting person invalidates his fast. If it is semen, which is what necessitates the full ritual bath, it invalidates his fast. It is obligatory for him, if it is in Ramadan, to abstain for the rest of the day and to make up this day.
By the way, I would like to point out an issue in which there is much error and little questioning. How is it that there is so much error in it and so little questioning about it?
A person may remain with his wife for months, and perhaps complete a year, while he is having intercourse with her. If he does not ejaculate, he thinks that the full ritual bath is not obligatory for her or for him. Some people have intercourse with their wives during the day in Ramadan, and if they do not ejaculate, they think that their fast is valid and that they do not owe an expiation. This is a great and serious error. This is because the full ritual bath is obligatory either through intercourse, even if there is no ejaculation, or through ejaculation, even if there is no intercourse. So, if there is both intercourse and ejaculation, it is all the more so. As for the fast, it is also invalidated by ejaculation if it is due to the action of the fasting person, even if there is no intercourse, and it is invalidated by intercourse even if there is no ejaculation. However, if the intercourse is intentional during the day in Ramadan, five things follow from it. Pay attention: if a fasting person has intercourse in Ramadan in a state where fasting is obligatory for him, five things follow: sin, the invalidation of the fast, continuing to abstain for the rest of the day, making up the day, and expiation. We said "in a state where fasting is obligatory for him" because if the intercourse occurs in a state where fasting is not obligatory, such as if a person is traveling and fasting with his family, then there is no sin, no invalidation of the fast, no obligation to continue abstaining, and no expiation; he is only required to make up the day. So, if a man and his family perform the lesser pilgrimage and they are fasting in this month in Makkah, but he has intercourse on one day while fasting, what do we say to him? We say: You only have to make up this day.
The questioner : The invalidation of the fast
The Shaykh : Yes, the fast of that day is invalidated, and he must make it up. Yes.
The Shaykh : It is permissible for a person to tease his wife while fasting, whether in Ramadan or outside of Ramadan. If something comes out of him, if it is pre-seminal fluid, his fast is valid because the emission of pre-seminal fluid does not invalidate the fast. If it is semen, his fast is defective, because the emission of semen due to the action of the fasting person invalidates his fast. If it is semen, which is what necessitates the full ritual bath, it invalidates his fast. It is obligatory for him, if it is in Ramadan, to abstain for the rest of the day and to make up this day.
By the way, I would like to point out an issue in which there is much error and little questioning. How is it that there is so much error in it and so little questioning about it?
A person may remain with his wife for months, and perhaps complete a year, while he is having intercourse with her. If he does not ejaculate, he thinks that the full ritual bath is not obligatory for her or for him. Some people have intercourse with their wives during the day in Ramadan, and if they do not ejaculate, they think that their fast is valid and that they do not owe an expiation. This is a great and serious error. This is because the full ritual bath is obligatory either through intercourse, even if there is no ejaculation, or through ejaculation, even if there is no intercourse. So, if there is both intercourse and ejaculation, it is all the more so. As for the fast, it is also invalidated by ejaculation if it is due to the action of the fasting person, even if there is no intercourse, and it is invalidated by intercourse even if there is no ejaculation. However, if the intercourse is intentional during the day in Ramadan, five things follow from it. Pay attention: if a fasting person has intercourse in Ramadan in a state where fasting is obligatory for him, five things follow: sin, the invalidation of the fast, continuing to abstain for the rest of the day, making up the day, and expiation. We said "in a state where fasting is obligatory for him" because if the intercourse occurs in a state where fasting is not obligatory, such as if a person is traveling and fasting with his family, then there is no sin, no invalidation of the fast, no obligation to continue abstaining, and no expiation; he is only required to make up the day. So, if a man and his family perform the lesser pilgrimage and they are fasting in this month in Makkah, but he has intercourse on one day while fasting, what do we say to him? We say: You only have to make up this day.
The questioner : The invalidation of the fast
The Shaykh : Yes, the fast of that day is invalidated, and he must make it up. Yes.