If the one who boycotts does not limit his boycott to himself but extends it to his family and children, and the boycotted person has repented, what is the ruling?

The questioner : This question gives rise to another question. It may be that the one who boycotts actually, as you said, did not limit the matter to himself, meaning he extended it to his family and children, and prevented them from speaking with the other party and his children, and so on, is that right?

The Shaykh : It has become clear to everyone that the man has repented and turned back to Allah.

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : The same applies; it is not permissible for these people to continue in that.

The questioner : Okay, meaning the withdrawal of the stance, even if the matter is a dispute between two people, even if the boycotted person has not repented, hypothetically, what is the connection to his children and family, knowing that every person is accountable for himself, meaning there is a dispute between two individuals?

The Shaykh : Do you mean, Abu Yahya, that the boycotted person has children, so they were also boycotted?

The questioner : Yes, because of him, yes.

The Shaykh : Because of him.

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : This is not permissible, because .