Is it permissible for a woman to raise her voice in the loud prayers?
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The questioner : We heard a fatwa today from one of the sheikhs stating that a woman is not allowed to raise her voice in the loud prayers. Is this correct?
The Shaykh : It is correct, and it is not correct.
The questioner : How is it correct and how is it not correct?
The Shaykh : But perhaps you did not hear from him that it is correct, and I will explain to you how it is correct and how it is not correct. Based on what you heard from him, I will present several scenarios and ask you, and you only have to answer with the shortest answer. If a woman is in her home and there is no one with her except her husband, and she stands to pray the 'Isha' or Maghrib or Fajr prayer and raises her voice, is this permissible according to this scholar?
The questioner : It is permissible.
The Shaykh : You should have reported that he said it is not permissible.
The questioner : He stated it in general terms without specifying the conditions.
The Shaykh : I am asking you about this scholar; I am not asking you about your own opinion. Is it permissible according to this scholar?
The questioner : It is permissible. According to this scholar's statement, it is permissible.
The Shaykh : According to this scholar, whom you are saying stated that a woman's voice is 'awrah (nakedness), it is permissible in the scenario I presented to you.
The questioner : It is not permissible.
The Shaykh : You have confused me. Sometimes you say it is permissible according to this scholar, and sometimes you say it is not. You are mixing your opinion with his. We are not asking about your opinion; we are asking based on what you heard from him.
The questioner : I heard from him that it is not permissible.
The Shaykh : So, one of the two is wrong. To avoid being unjust to the man, let us be unjust to you. It is not him who is wrong, it is you!
The questioner : I am the one who is wrong.
The Shaykh : Look, you should judge for yourself. It is not permissible to say this in general terms. I told you it is correct and not correct, and this is the detail: If there are no strangers or non-mahram (relatives one may not marry) present with her, it is permissible. And if there is a non-mahram stranger present, it is not permissible. Perhaps this is what he intended.The Shaykh : Perhaps the scholar intended this second meaning.
The questioner : He intended this specifically, but he did not provide the detailed distinction.
The Shaykh : How do you know his intention?
The questioner : Because he stated it in general terms, so it must be restricted by his status as a scholar, or not.
The Shaykh : I am not saying no, no, or anything like that, but I am telling you that this detailed distinction is the correct one. Now, what about the other case?
The Shaykh : It is correct, and it is not correct.
The questioner : How is it correct and how is it not correct?
The Shaykh : But perhaps you did not hear from him that it is correct, and I will explain to you how it is correct and how it is not correct. Based on what you heard from him, I will present several scenarios and ask you, and you only have to answer with the shortest answer. If a woman is in her home and there is no one with her except her husband, and she stands to pray the 'Isha' or Maghrib or Fajr prayer and raises her voice, is this permissible according to this scholar?
The questioner : It is permissible.
The Shaykh : You should have reported that he said it is not permissible.
The questioner : He stated it in general terms without specifying the conditions.
The Shaykh : I am asking you about this scholar; I am not asking you about your own opinion. Is it permissible according to this scholar?
The questioner : It is permissible. According to this scholar's statement, it is permissible.
The Shaykh : According to this scholar, whom you are saying stated that a woman's voice is 'awrah (nakedness), it is permissible in the scenario I presented to you.
The questioner : It is not permissible.
The Shaykh : You have confused me. Sometimes you say it is permissible according to this scholar, and sometimes you say it is not. You are mixing your opinion with his. We are not asking about your opinion; we are asking based on what you heard from him.
The questioner : I heard from him that it is not permissible.
The Shaykh : So, one of the two is wrong. To avoid being unjust to the man, let us be unjust to you. It is not him who is wrong, it is you!
The questioner : I am the one who is wrong.
The Shaykh : Look, you should judge for yourself. It is not permissible to say this in general terms. I told you it is correct and not correct, and this is the detail: If there are no strangers or non-mahram (relatives one may not marry) present with her, it is permissible. And if there is a non-mahram stranger present, it is not permissible. Perhaps this is what he intended.The Shaykh : Perhaps the scholar intended this second meaning.
The questioner : He intended this specifically, but he did not provide the detailed distinction.
The Shaykh : How do you know his intention?
The questioner : Because he stated it in general terms, so it must be restricted by his status as a scholar, or not.
The Shaykh : I am not saying no, no, or anything like that, but I am telling you that this detailed distinction is the correct one. Now, what about the other case?
Source
www.al-albany.com
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.